Why would a “post COVID” patient be given a vaccine?
Mind you, I did catch measles in 1982 after being vaccinated against them in 1969, and then after my case of measles, I was vaccinated AGAIN, but doesn’t having the disease “vaccinate” a person?
And why would someone have priority to get the vaccine if they had COVID? Shouldn’t there be other priorities for people to get it?
Finally, remind me why we vaccinate for a disease with a .0096 risk of death.
Because we are not sure bow longg natural immunity lasts. These are health care workers risking bringing covid to their families every day. Would you really begrudge them. the vaccine?
The risk of death is not .0096 for everyone. some groups have a much higher risk and I have seen healthy young people die horribly with this. In addition to the risk of death there is the risk of being ill for an extended period of time and the risk of giving it to someone you love who is at higher risk. Death rates are not the only reason we vaccinate. Don’t want the vaccine? Don’t get it. But don’t spread false hysteria to try to keep others from getting it.
Crazy isn't it? Both my parents, in their mid nineties, had the Wuhan and recovered. Their facility gave them the vaccine anyway.
That is bullshit. And the butchers bill is. Is at 450,000
Perhaps you had both types of measles.
Red and German.
Because it reinforces the TOTALLY FALSE premise that having recovered from the virus confers no immunity.
Similar to the calls to ‘vaccinate’ all children against a virus which poses them literally almost no threat whatsoever.
Laughably incompetent, egregious misinformation.
The folks in the .0096% group were unavailable for comment. I'm all for vaccination with a fully tested vaccine, not one that was a member of a horse race to see who is first. Will get one, in a bit.
I saw lots of replies to your post, but I don’t believe the answer is there...
If I recall correctly, the original vaccine and the second vaccine were different - one was dead virus and the other was live virus. Whichever was first was deemed less effective than they thought, so recommended the second.
I could be wrong, or my memory could be faulty (It’s happened...), but I think that was it.
*Why would a post-COVID patient be given a vaccine?”
Because some cases are much less severe, meaning the immune system launches a pretty weak response that doesn’t build sufficient antibodies to prevent a second infection. When you get measles or german measles, the incidence of a ‘mild’ case are slim, so the immune system launches a very strong response, and produces a plethora of antibodies. (In your particular case, you mounted a weak response to measles, got infected again and so another vaccine was probably given to supercharge your immune response - not everyone has a perfect immune system)
*Finally, remind me why we vaccinate for a disease with a .0096 risk of death.”
First, your math is off. The death rate in the USA is 1.688%. (deaths divided by confirmed cases, or, about 3 per every 2,000 souls)
Answer to your question: Because those odds are not consistent across the population and relative only to the USA in a zero-intl travel bubble under regionally severe travel conditions. Consider Mexico at 8.5% mortality and Honduras at 2.44%. High mortality reflects high number of disease carriers. Guess who’s on our southern border and guess who doesn’t care if they bring CCPVirus into the US?
My Brother-in-law is in a care facility in Ohio.
He had covid, moved to a covid ward.
After that, he got the vaxx.
I thought it was odd too.
Why? Because the covid antibodies die off withing weeks or months allowing you to catch it again and again. Covid has mutated hundreds of times making the vaccine just as useless as the regular flu vaccine.