Probably true, but that doesn't mean the infections were deliberate. The Indians had no resistance to European diseases, but the Europeans in turn had no resistance the Indian diseases. The Europeans probably had a higher survival rate only because of a generally higher level of "civilization", for want of a better word. The also had later waves of immigrants to replace those lost to "Indian" diseases.
BTW, that resistance is the likely reason the traders didn't get the smallpox from the blankets.
You are correct, smallpox did devastate the Indian tribes as well as most of the Central and South Americas. However, given the fact that in that period of our history where nothing was known about infectious diseases, I remain sceptical about the claims that the white man intentionally gave smallpox laden blankets to the Indian tribes in an attempt to eradicate them. The fact that it probably did happen should not overshadow the fact that smallpox was devastating the Americas at that time and no one, regardless of their geographic locale was immune.
Smallpox contaminated blankets during an era where the source of contagions was unknown is just too convenient an excuse.
There is too much to be gained by the PC crowd in allowing this unsubstantiated claim to continue.
These are merely my personal thoughts on this controversial subject which I have never seen explored in print and probably will never do so...........