Posted on 11/26/2004 8:59:56 AM PST by SusanD
I certainly do!! There was a song the ended and we'll have a Gay old time! Ican't remember it. But the word has not been used as it was originally defined for such a long time, I fear that meaning may not be ever be applied again!
Who said he was?
Now THERE'S a question worth a thread!!
"The language is very hard to define whether it belongs to Thraco-Illyrian or to Hellenic groups of Indo-European languages. Some linguists believe that tribes of mountainous Macedonia spoke an archaic language closer to Thracian or Illyrian, but people in towns and the upper classes, influenced by Greek achievements, gradually were losing their native tongue and took up Greek. Contacts with Greek Halkidiki and Thessalia regions were strengthening in the 5th and 4th centuries, and simultaneously the process of national assimilation went on. When Greece was conquered by Philip of Macedonia and occupied by his son Alexander the Great, Macedonians officially became real Hellenes."
Notice that the writer didn't say "Macedonians officially became real Greeks" ~ he'd only go so far as to point out the obvious ~ the ruling elite over the Greeks and other Hellenes were quite obviously "Hellenes".
Just what is it about the Greeks that any possible contact with the Slavic people, whether ancient or modern, is viewed so contemptuously? Ever since the Celts sailed out of their Black Sea ports circa 1275 BC the Slavs have had no trouble finding their way to Greek speaking areas such as Greece. During the Dark Ages many of them moved in, married the local governor's daughter, and began occupying a prominant place in the Greek genepool.
I'd also like to take this opportunity to remind you that when it comes to major divisions in the Indo-European languages, Western European tongues fall on the "centum" side, while Eastern European tongues, and Greek, fall on the "satem" side. Now that's some serious differences eh?!
Is that abominable or abdominal?
abominable
Macedonia wasn’t Greek? That would be like saying Peloponnesia wasn’t Greek. As to contemporary writers not saying he was gay – why would they? Bisexuality was the accepted norm.
There was a song the ended and we'll have a Gay old time
Theme song to the Flintstones?
No kidding. Attic Greece had its share of homosexuality, too.
I'm not sure what your point is.
Mine was: not all references to manly love in history and in literature implied homosexuality, though the homosexual lobby misinterprets a lot of those references as of a homosexual nature.
Are you saying they are correct and that most men who expressed love for other men were homosexual?
DON'T freakin ask, DON'T freakin tell, an DON'T freakin thow it in my face!
Acc. to the IMDB, it's in 6th place in box office take, compared to other current releases. These are stats for its third day of release.
Excellent post. The following should quench the desires of so many to force Alexander as well as the ancient Greeks into homoerotic situations they did not engage in.
http://www.grecoreport.com/debunking_the_myth_of_homosexuality_in_ancient_greece.htm
I have not seen the movie, but I have seen the ads on TV. They show Alex telling the boys not to fear death.
He sounds like draftee corporal who wishes he were a leader of men but never manages to stick his head up and fire his weapon during a firefight. My first impluse would be to frag him to keep him from getting good men hurt.
If you really went to a school where Mary Renault was considered an authority on ancient Greece, you should demand a refund of your tuition.
Off to check out the link in Post 72.
Not all or even most Greek city-states approved of the pederasty-rape of the Spartans and Athenians. Many deplored it and considered it reprehensible. Philip of Macedon disapproved of it, and to say the "Greeks" accepted this at the time is not wholly accurate. Even the Romans who adopted much of Greek culture looked down on those who practiced pederasty openly and winked at those aristocrats who had the "good taste" to emulate Athens with acceptably non-aristocratic catamites and not those who "degraded" themselves by assuming the submissive role in any circumstance.
Many deplored it and considered it reprehensible.
There is more evidence to dismiss it out of hand than there exists to accept it out of hand, as Stone and the Ivory Tower has. Claims demand evidence.
Claims demand evidence.
It demands nothing of the sort. One cannot prove a negative. To hold that up as a standard for proof is absurd and faulty logic.
What can be said is that there is positive proof of Alexander's heterosexual activity: offspring. There is no positive proof of homosexuality. Therefore all indications show that Alexander's sexual activities were hetero and nothing else.
Now, with that positive assertion, it is up to the other side to disprove the statement with a single contrary example. That's the way proof works.
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