To: All
To: flattorney
To: flattorney
Wondering if you could clear something up for me? Dick DeGuerin motioned to quash the conspiracy indictment on the grounds that a conspiracy charge did not apply to the Texas Election code until 2003. Why isn't DeGuerin using the same argument for the money laundering indictment? Granted, it is more fun to go after Earle for misconduct, but shouldn't DeGuerin argue in the alternative that money laundering under the penal code was not incorporated into the election code until legislative amendment in 2003?
Any help would be appreciated.
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