This country was set up to protect individual Rights and to promote an atmosphere of liberty, responsibility, and freedom.
It applies to the States. Counties. Cities. Municipalities. Even "home rule" cities. If you are part of this Union, then you are subject to the Art 6 para 2 clause. No other "incorperation" or selective enforcement is necessary.
From my understanding that is partially correct, the second amendment has never been "incorporated" via a supreme court ruling on the 14th amendment / due process clause as the others have. While logically it WOULD be, it has not yet been so I would imagine that leaves the states free to regulate arms however they see fit, and many state constitutions do not even mention the right to keep and bear arms (fun game: guess which ones)
That is my understanding of the situation at least, if a forum lawyer is out there to correct me, please do.
Nope. See my post 24 on this thread. The first time the 14th amendment was used that way was when the left-wing activists in the second half of the 20th century created the fiction that the 14th amendment 'incorporated' selected parts of the bill of rights into the 14th amendment. Thus, the left reasoned, the US Supreme Court could control the states.
The 14th amendment itself applies quite obviously only to slaves and their descendants.
Even laying aside the 2nd and 14th amendments, many states Constitutions have similar RKBA provisions. At most they allow regulation of the wearing or concealing of arms, not of mere possession. The states with such RKBA provisions which also regulate or ban machine guns on the state level, are as guilty of violating their constitutions as the federal government is of violating its own. Only 6 states, (CA, IA, MD, MN, NJ, NY have no RKBA provision at all. A quick check of the others' provisions revealed no power to ban possession of arms, only allowances to regulate bearing and to define lawful uses of arms.