Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article

To: ought-six
The South paid the vast majority of the revenues that made up the federal tax base...

On what? If the South paid the vast majority of revenues then that must mean they consumed the vast majority of imports. What was it they were importing in such huge amounts?

However, the vast majority of those revenues were spent in the North.

For example?

Slavery was pretty much a non-issue as far as the North was concerned...

But it was very much an issue for the South, was it not?

The so-called Emancipation Proclamation, which was issued in January, 1863 (more than two years after South Carolina had seceded, by the way) in actuality freed no one, because it only applied to states that “were in rebellion against the Union.”

Which were the only states it could be applied to. For the rest it required a constitutional amendment, which Lincoln also supported through the House and Senate and to the states.

80 posted on 12/12/2007 4:14:05 AM PST by Non-Sequitur (Save Fredericksburg. Support CVBT.)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 79 | View Replies ]


To: Non-Sequitur

You need to read some history, my friend.

The vast majority of trade was between the Southern states and Europe; the North exported nothing, and imported very little. The South, on the other hand, exported almost its goods and products, and imported a great deal of what it needed and wanted in return. Eli Whitney’s little invention was a marvel, no?


87 posted on 12/14/2007 5:19:21 PM PST by ought-six ("Give me liberty, or give me death!")
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 80 | View Replies ]

To: Non-Sequitur

You said: “Which were the only states it could be applied to. For the rest it required a constitutional amendment, which Lincoln also supported through the House and Senate and to the states.”

What tripe! Lincoln considered the Southern states to be still part of the Union, but wayward misfits. As such, the Constitution still applied to them, and a constitutional amendment to abolish slavery would still be required. If, on the other hand, with secession the Southern states became an independent nation, than Lincoln had no legal authority over it whatsoever (except in those Southern territories that were under Union occupation, like some of the southernmost Louisiana parishes, to which the Emancipation Proclamation specifically did not apply).

Lincoln had no intention whatsoever of freeing anyone (except, as someone had previosuly stated, in the District of Columbia, which was done in 1862 NOT by any benevolence of Ol’ Abe, but because he was presented pretty much with a fait accompli).


88 posted on 12/15/2007 4:17:40 AM PST by ought-six ("Give me liberty, or give me death!")
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 80 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson