How does being orthodox constitute dissent? Or do I misunderstand the title?
“How does being orthodox constitute dissent?”
Other than the bishop of South Bend, in whose diocese this all occurred and who acted as he deemed appropriate, as was his right, none of the politicized bishops who attacked ND and Fr. Jenkins are even remotely “orthodox” in their ecclesiology. These meddlesome bishops who decided that the canons mean nothing have done great damage to the Latin Church in America.