Only to point it out in the Constitution, but the government (at least at the federal level) cannot pass a law to manage or challenge a religion. I kinda thought from the beginning of this Oklahoma effort...that it wouldn’t work when taken to the Supreme Court.
ISLAM is NOT a religion-it remains primarily a complete system of theocratic civil government and military force under the guise of religion. Islam is and has always been incompatible with our own Republican form of Democracy-From the setting out by Columbus to the planting of a Latin Cross at Cape Henry—
from the Mayflower Compact and the related fundamental and Organic law Islam has always been an opposing and destructive force. the ignorant and the deceived can pretend it is a
religion and protected under our Constitution until they slay you, or bind you head and foot -and demand you submit to paying the poor rate until the war lay down its burden
but your dementia will not make it what you pretend it is.
I'm not tracking. It does *not* single out one type of law. It says that Oklahoma judges cannot use *any* foreign legal rulings. I'm Eastern Orthodox. Should I demand that the courts use our canon law to determine the outcome of cases? That would already be unconstitutional. Yet that is precisely what Moslems want and what this amendment clarifies. They can be Moslems all they want, but their equivalent of canon law cannot be used in place of our Common Law.
In Louisiana that would be problematic, since no one else in the states uses Civil Law. They use French and Canadian rulings all the time, since they still use that legal tradition. The law in Oklahoma is based on Common Law, not Shari'a Law, Roman Catholic Canon Law, Russian Orthodox Canon Law, Lutheran Canon Law, Baptist . . . whatever Baptists have, etc.
There is no right to substitute our legal system with another, even if it is associated with a religion. As for managing Christianity, the basis of our country, it has been under assault since the 5-4 Everson v. Board of Education ruling. Klansman Hugo Black gave us the infamous "wall of separation" nonsense. If there is a wall of separation, how can the OK amendment be unconstitutional?