Posted on 06/17/2013 1:36:14 PM PDT by Steve Peacock
That’s very interesting. Do you have a reference for that?
I’m always suspicious of claims like this where the words “every” or “never” are used. With millions of cases the law of large numbers makes their accurate use unlikely.
Just Google it:
http://aidsmeds.com/articles/Transmission_9963.shtml
http://www.buzzle.com/articles/female-to-male-hiv-transmission.html
The Queer Lobby does not want this know because it is just not a heterosexual disease (again, assuming no pre-existing venerial disease and vaginal sex).
Thanks. Unfortunately your links do not back up your “never, ever” claims.
It is universally agreed that a guy is less likely to get it from “normal” sex with a woman than she is to get it from him, but that isn’t “never, ever.”
Those were the first links I saw. I am not your research guru.
Even from the polticially-correct site, they state a non-circumsized male (who is more at risk than a circumsized male) has a .005% chance of getting HIV from a HIV+ woman.
When talking disease vector spread, that’s a 0, especially in the USA where circumcision is dominant.
“Every reported case of vaginal transmission, female to male, also had another veneral disease present.”
I suppose you have reviewed “every reported case” yourself, so that you can say this with complete surety?
And which venereal diseases predispose to AIDS, and by what mechanism?
And tell me, how many cases of AIDS have you personally treated?
“I suppose you have reviewed “every reported case” yourself, so that you can say this with complete surety?”
I haven’t personally, but my doctor wife sure has read a bunch. A random selection is above.
“And which venereal diseases predispose to AIDS, and by what mechanism?”
Anything that makes the skin barrier weak. Herpes is No. 1. Again, the articles are linked above.
“And tell me, how many cases of AIDS have you personally treated?”
Not sure how this is relevant, but again, my wife certainly has more than a few HIV+ patients. Every single one is a gay male.
So basically, you have no direct experience or knowledge of this subject.
Your doctor wife: what is her specialty?
FYI, I have been treating AIDS since about 1979 (when I started my fellowship in Infectious Diseases), when we were seeing sporadic cases of Kaposi’s Sarcoma, pneumocystis pneumonia, cryptococcal meningitis, chronic diarrhea, atypical tuberculosis, and lymphoma and didn’t yet realize that we were seeing an epidemic caused by a novel viral agent.
Unlike your wife, over the last 36 years I have seen HIV/AIDS in hemophiliacs, women(a few with a single sexual contact and no STD’s), gays, straights, children, and physicians, dentists and nurses who received needle sticks. And, yes, I have seen it in men, acquired from women, with no other STD’s.
“And, yes, I have seen it in men, acquired from women, with no other STD’s.”
Wow, if that is from vaginal intercourse, you must write a paper, since those guys are from the lucky .005%.
.005% is a zero, epidemiologically speaking, and you know it.
“.005% is a zero, epidemiologically speaking, and you know it.”
I take care of individuals, epidemiologists think about populations: in patient care, there is no zero, and there is no 100%.
PF:
None of what you are saying is relevant to the discussion at hand regarding transmission rates.
AIDs (post 1986 or so when people figured out about hemophilia and needle sticks) is largely a voluntarily-aquired disease, pretty much exclusive to the gay and drug-using community for the reasons cited by TTR -— it’s just darn hard for female-to-male transmission to occur among a normal-behaving population.
I also see that this information is shouted down by the medical community that treats gays -— because if the truth comes out, the money dries up.
Yes. It’s a conspiracy.
How silly.
It’s just self-interest and political correctness.
“I take care of individuals, epidemiologists think about populations: in patient care, there is no zero, and there is no 100%.”
That’s great, but this article is about an epidemioligical study.
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