Posted on 04/05/2014 8:44:08 PM PDT by ReaganÜberAlles
The insurance company would probably deny that claim.
A mere. legalistic technicality cited by an anal retentive idiot.
Everyone knows the common baseball phrase: “and the batter puts the ball in play” and everyone understands the concept.
Now don’t you have a slide rule to polish somewhere?
When a pitcher picks a runner off of first base, that is done with a dead ball?
I'll let your name calling speak for itself.
I think once an umpire calls an infield fly rule all further play is suspended and all runners have to return to their original bases.
That is why the rule was implemented.
Nope. Ball is live and runners advance at own peril.
As you know, when the catcher throws the ball back to the pitcher after a pitch no one in their right mind would say “the ball is in play”. You are confusing the concept of “in play”, to an absurd degree, with the concept of a “live ball”.
As far as name calling goes.... the shoe seems to fit pretty well doesn’t it?
And when that catcher makes an errant throw back to the pitcher allowing a runner on 3rd to score, I guess you'll continue to say that the ball was never in play.
To limit the "ball in play" condition to simply the act of a hitter hitting the ball is pigeon holing the entire concept..
There are countless scenarios where the ball is in play, runs are scored and outs recorded with a ball not having been hit......
but it always starts with the ball in the pitchers hand.
There are countless scenarios where the ball is in play, runs are scored and outs recorded with a ball not having been hit……
but it always starts with the ball in the pitchers hand.
As a former softball pitcher I would agree (tho obviously there are differences, in that a softball base runner isn’t permitted to take a lead).I had occasion to appeal a runner’s having left base too soon before an outfielder had caught a fly ball. That is actually always an appeal play, even if the runner was trying to return to base and didn’t make it back in time. Being then without understanding, I called time out before I threw the ball to the base - and found that I had thereby mooted my right to appeal. Live and learn!
Nope. After an infield fly rule has been called, runners do NOT have to tag their bases. This scenario seems to rely on one of the runners not realizing that.
The infield fly rule is not in effect if there is a runner on first only. The runner should head back to FIRST base. If the defense drops the ball to get a force out at 2nd, the notion is that the batter would likely reach 1st base safely, so the rule-makers felt there is no motive to purposely bungle the play. They obviously never considered that there would ever be a Rickey Henderson.
Nope, see if this helps.
When the ball is being thrown back to the pitcher or being “pitched” to the catcher there is no “play” going on. The ball is “live” yes. But no one would define those two instances in the most commonly used, and accepted, definition as a “play”. Once the batter hits the ball or there is some kind of errant throw by pitcher or catcher than the someone has to make a “play” on the ball.
You are taking a very legalistic and not necessarily accurate view of the use of the word “play” in the baseball code. Many, many, MANY words are found in the “law” that have a definition applied to them there that the overwhelming number of people would not apply to it and they would apply a different definition to it.
In my original, theoretical situation I posted to start this thread the definition of the word “play” is not the one found in the “law” of baseball you cited.
Nope, see if this helps.
When the ball is being thrown back to the pitcher or being “pitched” to the catcher there is no “play” going on. The ball is “live” yes. But no one would define those two instances in the most commonly used, and accepted, definition as a “play”. Once the batter hits the ball or there is some kind of errant throw by pitcher or catcher than the someone has to make a “play” on the ball.
Some are trying to apply a very legalistic and not necessarily accurate view of the use of the word “play” in the baseball code. Many, many, MANY words are found in the “law” that have a definition applied to them there that the overwhelming number of people would not apply to them and they would apply a different, more commonly accepted and used definition to them. Doesn’t make either of them “wrong”. But using the “legalistic” definition in the case of my post IS wrong.
In my original, theoretical situation I posted to start this thread the definition of the word “play” is not the one found in the “law” of baseball cited.
It is an unusual characteristic of baseball that it is the defense - the pitcher - who initiates. The batter can’t club a low, inside fastball into the middle of next week when the pitcher elects to throw a change up. It is the pitcher who starts all plays - not the batter, who is in a real sense on defense trying not to be called out on strikes (if he does nothing, and the pitcher gets the umpire to call three strikes) or otherwise hit the ball where the defense can make a play on him, or on one of his teammates on base.
I recall once standing behind the rubber waiting for the next batter to stand in, and thinking, “It’s really nice of all these fellows to come here so I can have a game.” The pitcher really is that important to a team. Believe me, if your pitcher can’t do his job well the game will be no fun at all.
I agree that baseball is “legalistic” but my post about the triple play still holds true I think if you don’t get too far down in the “legalistic” weeds.
Baseball is funny in that I think it’s the only game where the defense has the ball, (except maybe the similar game, cricket.) But I don’t consider that game a sport. :)
Every insurance company out there has probably denied a claim for a shakier reason than that.
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