Or is it just everyone's assumption (including mine) that if the attacker was a woman, that the victim would not make a complaint? The fact that it wasn't "rape" according to the book (no penetration) (see #8), means it could have been a woman in search of satisfying an urge.
So if the victim was a guy interested in maintaining his celibacy, it would be reason to complain.
Not that I doubt it was a gay assault; Occam's Razor says it was. Just sayin'...
the full article (before the mod edited it) describes the attacker as a "Pale-skinned white male."