“CNN is currently reporting that up to 20 people have been exposed to patient (Dallas Patient Zero).”
Echoing a question posed by a freeper on another thread...
If the incubation period is 20 days, how did he already infect his family member and have them experiencing symptoms?
I’ve read that it takes anywhere between 2-21 days for the symptoms to show up. That’s a big variation.
I don’t fully understand what is meant by “incubation”. Does that mean that the individual germs have to somehow mature before they can pass on to somebody else? Does it mean that’s how long it takes for there to be enough germs in the body fluids to infect somebody else? Does it mean that’s when the germs would come out in ways that people could get it (like sweat, blood, etc)?
I read an article saying that the virus is still in semen 7 months after the symptoms are all gone. How does that fit with the “you can’t infect somebody if you’re not exhibiting symptoms” claim?
I wish there was somebody we could trust to give us the real low-down.
The CDC doctor (IIRC) said the incubation was between 2 days and 21 days (3 weeks).
In other words, they don’t really know. They are playing it by ear.
“how did he already infect his family member”
I read elsewhere that he rode in the taxi with the woman that died on Sept 15. The first time he went to the hospital was Sept 24, so its nine days to the severe symptoms. He arrived in Dallas on the Sept 20, so his family should be showing the symptoms about now.
I was just watching Dr Oz and he was saying the virus has mutated 50 times and was worried it could become air born.
Maybe the guy has a more virulent strain.