I don’t recall any other state that became one via constitutional amendment. Maybe there’s something in the Constitution specifically about DC of which I’m not aware.
Sigh.
I dont recall any other state that became one via constitutional amendment.
The original reason for having a Federal capital district is so that no state would have power over the seat of the Federal government. The District voted for Hillary Clinton by something like 92%. Imagine the hostility of such a state government against President Trump. Look at what New York state government is trying.
In fact the Constitution specifically lays out the politically neutral District of Columbia. It would take an amendment to change that.
Article I, Section 8: "To exercise exclusive legislation in all cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten miles square) as may, by cession of particular states, and the acceptance of Congress, become the seat of the government of the United States..."
Article I §8: “Congress shall have the power...To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the Acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of the Government of the United States”
So, after the cession of DC by Virginia and Maryland, the District became the Seat of Government of the United States. Congress gave Alexandria and Arlington back to Virginia in the 1840s, but they did not try to make Alexandria and Arlington a State.
I think that to dissolve the Seat of Government provided for in the Constitution would require an Amendment.
Congress could (and should) give residential DC back to Maryland.
All republics have federal districts where state law does not apply. That’s to prevent the inevitable conflict between competing jurisdictions. It means the feds are writing laws that sound like local laws, that only apply to the federal district. Still, it’s necessary to avoid jurisdictional conflict.