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To: Destro
The Emperor replaced Patriarchs -- he did not serve as one-Constatnine did not set rules--he called a council of Bishops to do it-

Constantine was the archetype, preferring to allow Christian authorities to solve religious problems. He little resembled the Byzantine emperors that would follow him who had patriarchs who displeased them in any way deposed/exiled/blinded/killed. Now let's use a little logic. If the Patriarchs/Bishops were the highest Church authorities and the Byzantine emperor could change them as often as he changed his shoes, where in reality did the power lie--certain pillar saints notwithstanding?

The Pope WAS king of the Papal states AND reserved the right to depose of Latin Catholic Kings at will.

The Pope was a temporal ruler of the papal states. He never claimed to be a "king," though he administered his domains much like a king would have. The Pope never claimed to have temporal authority over all of the former Western Empire and his attempts to depose western kings were not always successful.

And I said the Protestants later on went to emulate the Byzantine model.

You said that the Byzantines had some sort of "separation of church and state." In order to prove that, you'll have to cite better evidence than a vague reference to Constantine. If you mean in that Protestant kings and queens, like Byzantine emperors and empresses, tended to deal heavy-handedly--and sometimes tyranically--with the leaders of the Christian churches in their domains, then yes, I'd agree.
248 posted on 05/31/2003 5:12:58 PM PDT by Antoninus (In hoc signo, vinces †)
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To: Antoninus
You misqoute me and you contradict yourself.

I said The Eastern Christians actually had a seperation of church and state but they never called it that. I think the term the Orthodox use is a "symphonic relationship".

The Emperor was not head of church and state.

Your contradictory statement The Pope never claimed to have temporal authority over all of the former Western Empire and his attempts to depose western kings were not always successful. If the Pope never claimed temporal authority why did he crown Charles the Great? Why did give England to William the Bastard? Why did the Pope give Ireland to the Norman English (that's right my Irish Catholic pals--the Pope gave you over without even a by your leave).

As chronicled here: THE FALL OF ORTHODOX ENGLAND

Gives a god account of the symphonic relationship between the church and state in Orthodoxy too.

255 posted on 05/31/2003 5:52:41 PM PDT by Destro (Know your enemy! Help fight Islamic terrorisim by visiting www.johnathangaltfilms.com)
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