Are you serious? Wherever did you acquire such a strange idea?
The Hebrew scriptures are written without vowels because that is the way Semitic languages are written.
With the vowels ommitted, is there potential for ambiguity?
SD
Hmmm .. Paleo-Hebrew had vowels. It also used letters that look Greco-Phoenecian, and not the standard Aramaic.
Take a look at the alphabets.
1=North Semitic alphabet (Paleo-Hebrew); 2=Earliest Greek character (9th-6th centuries BC; 4-5 Eastern branch (4. Ionic; 5. Attic); 7=Western branch; 9=Classic Greek; 10=Names of the letters (those in parentheses; names of letters now discarded in classic Greek.
Aramaic, Hebrew, and Greek alphabets.
Are "aleph" (a), "he" (e), "jod" (i), "ajin" (o) not vowels?
Of course, considering the manuscripts are all in standard Hebrew and not Paleo-Hebrew, obviously we know that IF they were written prior to the Babylonian Captivity that they were translated into a new alphabet and updated language at that time.
Huh? My Tanakh has vowels.