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Jesus is, on occasion, refered to as the "Angel of the Lord" in the OT.

How can you make this claim from the Bible alone. Or is your argument that the Bible is not enough for interpreting the Bible itself? I am confused by your posts and I suspect you have an interpretative method, but it is not readily apparent to me. Clarification would be welcome. How do come to your conclusion that Jesus is, on occasion, refered to as the "Angel of the Lord" in the OT?

***How do come to your conclusion that Jesus is, on occasion, refered to as the "Angel of the Lord" in the OT***

Based on context...

"But the angel of the LORD called out to him from heaven, "Abraham! Abraham!"
"Here I am," he replied.
"Do not lay a hand on the boy," he said. "Do not do anything to him. Now I know that you fear God, because you have not withheld from me your son, your only son."

...you have not withheld from ME...

Jesus appears in the OT in what are called "theophanies". God appearing in the form of a man or angel. It is up to the context of the passage to conclude where it is Jesus or not. Another example of Jesus appearing in a visible form is...

"The LORD appeared to Abraham near the great trees of Mamre while he was sitting at the entrance to his tent in the heat of the day. Abraham looked up and saw three men standing nearby. When he saw them, he hurried from the entrance of his tent to meet them and bowed low to the ground.... Then the LORD said, "I will surely return to you about this time next year, and Sarah your wife will have a son."

Angel in Hebrew can mean something like "messenger" as opposed to just a winged, celestial creature. Jesus, on occasion acts as God's messenger in thr OT. In the NT he is God's messenger Par Excellent!