It's worse than that! The Jews convened the Council of Jamnia in part to quell Messianic fervor which they blamed for the Christian problem, as well as the vengence of the Romans against the Zealot revolt, which led to the destruction of the Temple. Therefore, one must keep in mind that the Jews' problem with the deuterocanonical books (called apocrypha by Luther as a deliberate attempt to mislead people) was that they prophecised Christ in the most precise manner!
Respectfully asked...I must admit I have not read all those books, but are they chok full of Messianic prophecies? They must be otherwise it doesn't make much sense for the Jews who are looking to quash the new believes that were threatening them...Please expound as I am interested...thanks!
God's blessings to you and yours.
>> Respectfully asked...I must admit I have not read all those books, but are they chok full of Messianic prophecies? <<
The issue of Greek contamination and Messianic hopes that the Jews considered false aren't exactly separate issues, and the Jews did not treat them as separate issues. Not all of the Deuterocanonicals have specific Messianic prophecies, but they all took place after what the Jews considered to be Greek contamination.
The tought thing is that those that did were very specific. Looking back, it is clear to Christians that many Psalms foretold the Resurrection ("The LORD shall rescue me from the grave.") But such prohecises can also be explained away in ordinary ways (such as interpreting rescuing from the grave as meaning sparing from death or Ezekiel's boneyard being taken metaphorically, for instance). Keep in mind, that the Jews take the suffering servant (cf Isaiah), for instance, to refer to the nation of Israel only, and not to a specific person. On the other hand, Judah Maccabees feared not the grave specifically because he prophecied that he, himself, would be raised in the flesh on the last day.