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To: Matchett-PI; xzins; topcat54; Frumanchu; Lee N. Field; TomSmedley; Alex Murphy
That is one of the best scholarly discussions I have ever read on the Olivet Discorse.

“Did Jesus return in 70AD?” ~ xzins

X, M-PI posted a bit of the discussion about 70AD. The "return" of our Lord in 70AD was the ushering in of the Church age. I think this is a reasonable interpretation if you hold to a view that the Old Testament was one age and the New Testament is a new age.

Did Jesus return in 70AD? It seems to me this is around the time the Gentiles were becoming accepted into the church, the death of Peter and Paul, etc. The destruction of the temple was the last vestage of the old age, the scattering of believers and the beginning of the new.

Christ did return since we can look around us at His great handiwork through the church, we believe He is reigning on His throne, and He is actively engaged in our lives. Did He physically return on April 7, 70AD in downtown Jerusalem? No. But we believe that Christ is physically reigning and it is a historical fact that the destruction of Jerusalem in 70AD was a significant force for the Christian church. It makes perfect sense to me.

Do I believe in a physical return of Christ? Of course. It will be a time when He will call the final believers out and execute judgment. It will be the close of this age.

84 posted on 04/13/2007 8:04:54 AM PDT by HarleyD
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To: HarleyD; xzins
"Do I believe in a physical return of Christ? Of course."

I think you meant to write, "bodily" return because I know you believe that Christ now has a "glorified body", as the fully God, and fully man, "God-man." All those resurrected from the dead are given "glorified bodies" which are no longer subject to _physical_ problems, including death.

Great reply! bttt

85 posted on 04/13/2007 8:24:58 AM PDT by Matchett-PI (To have no voice in the Party that always sides with America's enemies is a badge of honor.)
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To: HarleyD

The return you posit does not match a grammatical, historical, or literary reading of the text.


87 posted on 04/13/2007 8:36:57 AM PDT by xzins (Retired Army Chaplain And Proud of It! Those who support the troops will pray for them to WIN!)
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To: HarleyD; xzins
The "return" of our Lord in 70AD was the ushering in of the Church age.

That happened on Penetecost.

I think this is a reasonable interpretation if you hold to a view that the Old Testament was one age and the New Testament is a new age.

The New Testament began with the Birth of Christ and the ministry of John the Baptist.

Did Jesus return in 70AD? It seems to me this is around the time the Gentiles were becoming accepted into the church, the death of Peter and Paul, etc.

Esigesis.

Did every eye see him? No. 70AD is not the coming of Christ. The Church came well before 70AD. There were dozens of active and vital Gentile Churches before 70AD. All of Paul's letters were addressed to Gentile Churches scattered throughout the world. So the Church age did not begin in 70AD. By 70AD we were already into the second generation of Christians.

The Church age began with Pentecost and will continue until the time of the Gentiles is fulfilled.

Something important happens after that.

90 posted on 04/13/2007 8:56:34 AM PDT by P-Marlowe (LPFOKETT GAHCOEEP-w/o*)
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