***Now what happens after “After this I will return ...”. Just read the above words underlined.***
You are stuck in a Dispensational mindset. James has already asserted that the “I will return” had ALREADY happened. Quit reading everything as if it still future to you or even James.
Gentiles hear and believe ~ Peter
The prophets agree ~ James
The LORD returned to his people 2000 years ago. Does the name Imanuel mean anything to you???
The tabernacle was rebuilt.
The gentiles are coming is the proof of the prophetic fulfillment to the council. The same observance by Peter is the same coming of the gentiles in the prophecy. THIS IS WHY JAMES CITES IT.
But futurists dispies don’t get it. They think that James citing Amos needs to be read through the lens that places all the emphasis on events in our future.
In fact, whenever they read "Israel" or "David" or "tabernacle" anything remotely Jewish sounding in the NT their thoughts automatically leap forward thousands of years. They can no longer focus on the text.
That’s because in dispensationalism earthly Israel and not Christ is the object and fulfillment of many if not most of the OT prophecies. They truly believe that the promises were made to national Israel, rather than to Christ as the Seed of Abraham per Paul’s words in Galatians 3.
It’s impossible for them to imagine that Peter’s words in 1 Peter 2:9,10 were intended to communicate that the Church made up of both Jews and gentiles is the inheritor of the place formerly help by national Israel.
Their continued emphasis on earthly Jerusalem and earthly Israel is really an indication that they do not understand the real nature of the promise God made to His people (Gal. 4:24,25).
No he didn't. Jesus had just left from his first visit at His Ascension in 30 AD. So when did He return??? Did his second coming [return] occur between 30 AD and 50 AD??? Come on -- you're pullin' our legs.