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But what the pre-tribbers fail to see in the parable of the slaves, virgins, and talents is that not all believers are taken. In these parables, the standing of the actors are not in questions. They are all virgins, they are all slaves with the Lord as their bridegroom/master. In other words, they are all believers in Christ.

I don't think that intepretation is pandemic among all pretribs. There are many who indicate that the virgin parable represents the end of the tribulation and those who become believers during that period. MT 24-25 the question focuses upon the establishment of the Kingdom, and in parallel, to Israel - not the church specifically.

http://www.raptureready.com/featured/ice/AnInterpretationofMatthew24_25_36.html

Jesus' first advent was prophesied in the OT. Those who would dismiss the prophetic words of His second coming by spiritualizing them or associating them with events surrounding AD 70 do a disservice to scripture. Jesus' life was closely tied to prophecy - why wouldn 't His second coming be the same.

No one is denying that Jesus' Second Coming is tied to prophecy. What non-dispensationalists deny is that futurist dispensationalism has found the correct interpretation of those prophecies. E.g., that Matthew 24 is related to the events of AD70 is admitted even by many dispensationalists who cannot, regardless of how hard they try, twist the plain words to mean something else.

Those who claim a system based on consistent literalism and then have to weasel their way out of many tough passages (such as the blood sacrifices for atonement of Ezekiel 40-48) are really the ones doing a disservice to the plain words of Scripture

Jesus’ first advent was prophesied in the OT. Those who would dismiss the prophetic words of His second coming by spiritualizing them or associating them with events surrounding AD 70 do a disservice to scripture. Jesus’ life was closely tied to prophecy - why wouldn ‘t His second coming be the same.

= = =

INDEED.

VERY WELL PUT.

THX.

I would argue that the parables in Matt 24 and 25 are directed at the Church and not at the nation of Israel. Terms like "your Lord", master, and bridegroom are used. Both slaves have the same master. All the virgins have oil. The distinction in these parables is not their position (i.e. they are all slaves, virgins, etc), but in their actions while the Lord tarries.

The nation of Israel does not currently know Christ as their Messiah, so why would they be watching and waiting for Him and why would the parables refer to Christ as their master or their Lord?

JM