1 Cor 7:9 "But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn." Clearly Paul was endorsing marriage for the purpose of sexual gratification.
Mat 19:10-11 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry. But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given. Jesus himself declared that not everyone is enabled to be a enuich. By extension, people have differing sexual needs.
Rom 14:4-6 Who art thou that judgest another man's servant? to his own master he standeth or falleth. Yea, he shall be holden up: for God is able to make him stand. One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day alike. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind. He that regardeth the day, regardeth it unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard it. He that eateth, eateth to the Lord, for he giveth God thanks; and he that eateth not, to the Lord he eateth not, and giveth God thanks. This ignorant author is doing exactly what the scriptures say not to do in that he is applying his own standards to everyone.
You wrote:
“Clearly Paul was endorsing marriage for the purpose of sexual gratification.”
No, he did not. He said, “it is better”. In other words, it would be better for a man to marry and find gratification in that sexual union - a union blessed by God - then to BURN IN HELL FOR COMMITTING SEXUAL SINS OUTSIDE OF MARRIAGE. St. Paul would never recommend marriage SOLELY for sexual gratification.
I am not certain how you can read that from the verse you cited. In the verse you cite, St Paul was clearly advocating marriage for those who can't control their sexual impulses. Clearly, St Paul was endorsing marriage as a chaste alternative to masturbation or fornication.
In the same passage, did not St. Paul write, 29 This therefore I say, brethren: The time is short. It remains, that they also who have wives be as if they had none?
If he was advocating marriage for the purpose of achieving sexual gratification, why in the world would he suggest in the same passage for married men to act as if they had none?
Perhaps the scriptural ignorance does not lie with the author of this piece...
In the second passage you cited, you did not cite it in context. The full context is talking about divorce.
7 They said to him, "Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?" 8 He said to them, "For your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another, commits adultery; and he who married a divorced woman, commits adultery."10 The disciples said to him, "If such is the case of a man with his wife, it is not expedient to marry." 11 But he said to them, "Not all men can receive this saying, but only those to whom it is given. 12 For there are eunuchs who have been so from birth, and there are eunuchs who have been made eunuchs by men, and there are eunuchs who have made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to receive this, let him receive it." (Matthew (RSV) 19)
Jesus is talking about a gift that not all men can receive. You tell me: is he talking about men who are celibate or is he talking about men who take a knife to themselves? Does your church pass out knives?
This ignorant author is doing exactly what the scriptures say not to do in that he is applying his own standards to everyone.
Maybe you should follow your advice and read the whole scripture rather than out-of-context verses.