No, because like you yourself commented in your previous post she understood that married people have children. But she was engaged to be married, yet she wondered how was it possible for her to have children. This indicates that she did not intend to have carnal relations with Joseph.
Since when is sex within the bounds of marriage *carnal relations*? What is it with the Catholic mind that views sex as something wrong or dirty?
Mary simply asked the obvious question of how it was possible for her to become pregnant because she had not YET had sex, not because she never intended to.
Her never intending to affects her future, not her present. That would be a stupid question to ask if what she meant was what you say she meant.
How can I be come pregnant as I never intend to have sex with Joseph?
That's just silly.