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To: OLD REGGIE; presently no screen name; metmom; count-your-change
For example, saying that "Mary never intented to have sex with Joseph" while pointing to a verse that does not say anything of the kind is telling a lie

I explained how Luke 1:34 allows us to conclude that Mary did not intend to have sex with Joseph her husband following the marriage. I did not say that Luke 1:34 says anything other than what it says. Where is the lie?

5,461 posted on 12/16/2010 5:48:21 AM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: annalex
“I explained how Luke 1:34 allows us to conclude that Mary did not intend to have sex with Joseph her husband following the marriage.”

Ummm...NO..... Mary says, “How shall be this since man not I am knowing”. (Luke 1:34)

“shall be” is the future and “not I am knowing” is present. Mary says she is not at the time she is speaking ‘knowing’ a man and says nothing about her intents or future. To conclude from her statement something otherwise is simply reading into it what one wants it to say.

5,466 posted on 12/16/2010 8:10:24 AM PST by count-your-change (You don't have be brilliant, not being stupid is enough.)
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To: annalex; presently no screen name; metmom; count-your-change
For example, saying that "Mary never intented to have sex with Joseph" while pointing to a verse that does not say anything of the kind is telling a lie

I explained how Luke 1:34 allows us to conclude that Mary did not intend to have sex with Joseph her husband following the marriage. I did not say that Luke 1:34 says anything other than what it says. Where is the lie?

I have no intention of holding your hand throughout the entire process. Begin here:

If you have difficulty in discerning my intention, or your gratituous accusation of a "lie", simply forget the whole thing. I'll explain it to my cat who will certainly be equally capable of understanding. Besides, I am more patient with her.

5,483 posted on 12/16/2010 4:05:56 PM PST by OLD REGGIE (I am a Biblical Unitarian?)
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