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Did you apply the Aristotilian Dictum to this verse and use the science that every literary critic uses when approaching a text? Also, if you read my post you would see that the skeptic/atheist has no way to call such acts as wrong. I reference two evolutionary texts:

1) Randy Thornhill and Craig T. Palmer, A Natural History of Rape: Biological Bases of Sexual Coercion (Cambridge: MIT Press, 2000), 71, 163.
2) Dale Peterson and Richard Wrangham, Demonic Males: Apes and the Origins of Human Violence (New York, NY: Houghton Mifflin Harcourt Publishing, 1997).

I suggest reading the post and following the link to where I quote Aristotle's Poetc and also define "exegesis," hermeneutics," and "isegesis." Take note courts apply Aristotles dictum... so I am referencing secular applications, not religious.