[Bobsvainbabblings]

fishtank; all, there have been over 180 posts with no one posting why Mary had to be a virgin for The Christ to be born without a sin nature. The sin nature is past down by the father. There is no need for Mary to be sinless. Just a virgin so there was no chance of a human father. 

Numbers 14:18

The LORD is long-suffering, and of great mercy, forgiving iniquity and transgression, and by no means clearing the guilty, visiting the iniquity of the fathers on the children to the third and fourth generation.

This passage is more pertinent to this conversation because the Catholic version only states; "You shall have no other gods before me." No mention of how sin is passed or all the things Catholics claim they don't do. 

Exodus 20

The Ten Commandments

 ¹ And God spoke all these words, saying:
       ² “I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage.
       ³ “You shall have no other gods before Me.
       ⁴ “You shall not make for yourself a carved image—any likeness of anything that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth; ⁵ you shall not bow down to them nor serve them. For I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children to the third and fourth generations of those who hate Me, ⁶ but showing mercy to thousands, to those who love Me and keep My commandments.
 

Mary being the second Eve has the same problem. God did not pass judgment when Eve sinned. It was when Adam sinned. There was no need for a second Eve, only a second Adam

To know the nature of Jesus, The Christ, you don't have to read what someone who might have known an apostle or someone who might have known someone who knew someone who might have known an apostle. That is where the the  Catholic,  Apostolic religion proudly claims to get it's truths.

If you are a Christian, a follower of Christ, you can get it from God by reading His Word. He explained it well in His letter to the Romans, and us.  Especially chapter 5.

Jesus was a Man exactly like the man, Adam. That is why He is called; "The second Adam." God could not condemn Adam and us, His creation, without proving His creation could live a sinless life. Jesus provided that proof. He was just like Adam with a free will. Adam used his free will to be tempted by Satan. Jesus used His free will to follow God.

My God lead us all to His truth, BVB 

 

 

[paladinan]

Mary being the second Eve has the same problem. God did not pass judgment when Eve sinned. It was when Adam sinned.

Well... I'm not sure how you could maintain that, given that God specifically itemised the consequences of her sin (pain/suffering during child-birth, etc.); if only Adam was to blame, then why did she get punished at all? No... both sinned, and both were in need of redemption; both sexes participated in the fall; thus, God saw fit to incorporate both sexes in the redemption.

There was no need for a second Eve, only a second Adam.

If one pushes the point, there was no absolute "need" for a "second Adam", either; God could have redeemed us without becoming incarnate (though it would have made a hash of the entire meaning of our lives). Rather, God freely chose to use both sexes to participate in the redemption of what both sexes helped to destroy. God does not save us in spite of ourselves; He does so only with and through our COOPERATION with His grace... without exception.