Posted on 08/10/2012 6:48:52 AM PDT by Graybeard58
Both the Old Testament and the New address homosexuality and lesbianism in no uncertain terms. The Bible is the inspired word of God, and Jesus Christ is God in the flesh. He cannot and would not disagree with His own Word. The fact that He did not specifically speak to homosexuality in His incarnated time on earth is irrelevant.
I have posted this before but it bears remembering. God made our bodies purposely and it’s functions. He did not make man to reproduce with another man. It is between God and man what he does with his body but the Holy Word says the following and I’m sticking with that.
Leviticus 18:22
New International Version (NIV)
22 Do not have sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman; that is detestable
Genesis 19:4-5
New International Version (NIV)
4 Before they had gone to bed, all the men from every part of the city of Sodom both young and oldsurrounded the house. 5 They called to Lot, Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them.
Romans 1:27
27 In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error.
.
1 Corinthians 6:9-11
New International Version (NIV)
9 Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men[a] 10 nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God. 11 And that is what some of you were. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God.
Jude 1:7
New International Version (NIV)
7 In a similar way, Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding towns gave themselves up to sexual immorality and perversion. They serve as an example of those who suffer the punishment of eternal fire.
Cross references:
Jesus VERY clearly addressed marriage in Matthew 19. Especially verses 4-6: And He answered and said to them, Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning made them MALE and FEMALE, (5) and said, For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh? (6) So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.
He also implies one man, one woman distancing Him from the polygamy of the patriarchs and kings (Abraham, David, Solomon, etc.)
Read the entire chapter marriage other than male and female is not even on Jesus radar. Though Im sure He knew one day Old Devil would use it to divide even His followers. I look to the woman caught in adultery (John 8), also a capital offense in Jesus day had that been a homosexual I feel sure my Savior would say: Neither do I condemn you go now and SIN NO MORE!
Now ... are you aware of any specific prohibition on female homosexual acts? I'd be much obliged if you could point me to such, as I have been unable to find it.
Redgulum: If folks want to toss Paul as "not Christian", about all I can do at that point is pray for their conversion. I have read all of Leviticus more than once ... but maybe I missed something. Lev 18:22 seems to me specific to male/male sodomy.
CA Conservative: Thanks. I had forgotten the sentence about women doing sex with each other.
I think a lot of people here need to read the article. He makes it very clear that Jesus DID address it.
Just like “non-fat butter”, there’s no such thing as “same sex marriage”.
Jesus didnt directly address texting while driving...therefore texting while driving is ok
ROTFLMAO....that is so funny. That drinking and driving thingee puts us in a quandry too.
Even if Jesus HAD nothing to say about homosexuality, Paul did. And Paul was an inspired apostle from God.
Jesus is the word of God in the flesh and the law come to life. In Jude 7 it states “strange flesh”, it stands to reason since marriage is between one man and one woman, strange flesh stands for male or female.
Jude 6-11
6] And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
[7] Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.
[8] Likewise also these filthy dreamers defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities.
[9] Yet Michael the archangel, when contending with the devil he disputed about the body of Moses, durst not bring against him a railing accusation, but said, The Lord rebuke thee.
[10] But these speak evil of those things which they know not: but what they know naturally, as brute beasts, in those things they corrupt themselves.
[11] Woe unto them! for they have gone in the way of Cain, and ran greedily after the error of Balaam for reward, and perished in the gainsaying of Core.
Why address something that did not exist?
He posits that Yah'shua(Jesus) He serves some unknown god. Daniel seems confused.
shalom b'SHEM Yah'shua HaMashiach
is not one(echad) with YHvH.
Obvoiusly YOU never read Romans 1, Have You!
Rom 1:18-32 is clear and does address your concern.
Now ... can you show me where female homosexual acts are prohibited? Something equivalent to Lev. 18:22?
Seriously. Show me. I'm not defending female homosexual perversion. I'm looking for ammunition against it.
You, OTOH, are demonstrating a very bad habit common among protestant apologists on this forum. You are substituting snarky remarks for intelligent and informative discourse.
The following website is most probably more info that you wanted but you will find it interesting and informative.
There is a passage about the last days where women will turn their lusts toward other women but I have to look for it and get back with you.
http://www.studylight.org/dic/bed/view.cgi?number=T348
Right. Rom 1:26 characterizes female homosexuality as unnatural. I find it interesting and odd that the OT seems not to address the matter at all.
Romans 1-(KJV)
26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;
29 Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers,
There is no female equivalent to Lev. 18:22 or Lev 20:13.
The argument is a ruse. The ENTIRE Bible is the Word of God. You cannot separate parts of it from the whole and use it to argue in favor or against anything. The Bible is clear on what is sin and what is righteous and it is not silent on this issue.
If you're thinking about Rom. 1:26, I don't believe that's a "last days" thing. Instead, it's a description of how folks who know neither The Law nor The Gospel behaved up until the time of Paul's writing ... and it holds true today. The whole passage is Rom 1:18-32, and the first few verses give the context.
IMOPIOS
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