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1 posted on 07/29/2013 7:55:48 AM PDT by Gamecock
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To: Gamecock

For years (almost 2000), theologians struggled with this. They made up some incredible teachings to explain how the blood of Jesus could be perfect, yet have come from an imperfect mother. Some changed the mother to be perfect to explain it away.

Then, a couple thousand years later, science catches up with God. The blood of the child does not mix with the mothers blood. Sometimes the blood of the 2 can actually be toxic to the other.

We had no need for fancy teachings and such, just trust God and wait for science to explain to us that the blood of the child is ‘different’ than the mothers - and in this case, His blood was fit for the ‘perfect sacrifice’.

But we have our traditions, and hang onto them in the face of (now) simple explanations.

I wonder if God has any other secrets He hasn’t let us in on yet...


76 posted on 07/29/2013 10:37:26 AM PDT by LearnsFromMistakes (Yes, I am happy to see you. But that IS a gun in my pocket.)
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To: Gamecock

Because the sin nature comes through the father.


77 posted on 07/29/2013 10:37:38 AM PDT by metmom (For freedom Christ has set us free; stand firm therefore & do not submit again to a yoke of slavery)
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To: Gamecock

No, men pass sin nature on to the child.


80 posted on 07/29/2013 10:41:18 AM PDT by ForAmerica (Texas Conservative Christian *born again believer in Jesus Christ* Black Man!)
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To: Gamecock
Because nobody inherits the sin of their parents. Jesus was sinless because he did not sin.

Have you not read,

God created each of us good, alive, perfect - our sins condemn us.

83 posted on 07/29/2013 10:58:09 AM PDT by sinatorhellary
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To: Gamecock
34 “How will this be,” Mary asked the angel, “since I am a virgin?” 35 The angel answered, “The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called[b] the Son of God. 36 Even Elizabeth your relative is going to have a child in her old age, and she who was said to be unable to conceive is in her sixth month. 37 For no word from God will ever fail.”

I think verse 35 is about as close an explanation as possible

115 posted on 07/29/2013 4:28:38 PM PDT by InvisibleChurch (http://thegatwickview.tumblr.com/ -- http://thepurginglutheran.tumblr.com/)
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To: Gamecock

Look at the source.

This is not truthful in my opinion.


118 posted on 07/29/2013 4:46:59 PM PDT by Salvation ("With God all things are possible." Matthew 19:26)
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To: Gamecock

Mary was not Chosen to be the mother of Jesus because she was blessed, but was blessed because she was chosen to be the mother of the son of God.

The honor of being the Mother of Jesus was given to her, it was not owed her.

She was favored or chosen for reasons only God knows.

And she should be honored by all Christians today, but the scriptures are silent of any thing in regards to praying to her or praying to God in her name.

In fact the scriptures indicate that she was just like any other mother, she was more concerned of her sons safety than the fact that he was the son of God.

I have not found anything in the scriptures to indicate that either Mary or the brethren of Jesus which were most likely foster brothers and sisters were his followers, in fact they indicate just the opposite, up until his death.

But i guess in order to have a grand old religion and get people to flock to the churches and bring all of their money we we have to have more than just what we see in the scriptures, don,t we?


172 posted on 07/31/2013 5:35:03 AM PDT by ravenwolf
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