I wonder how they made it into the King James version for a quarter of a millennium? Or, remained as part of the Bible and/or Old Testament for about 2000 years? Some claim that the only reason it was removed was to cut printing costs. Even Martin Luther believed it was profitable, and John Calvin quotes it in his commentaries.
Did you notice that, in most cases, Christ and the apostles, when quoting the old testament, quoted from the Septuagint (LXX,) which contained the Apocrypha? The LXX was supposedly composed around 250 BC by 70 Jewish Scholars, hence the nickname, LXX. An example from the new testament is this quote by Paul from Hosea; called Osee in the LXX:
As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved." (Rom 9:26 KJV)
All the gospels, plus Acts and Romans, contain quotes from Esaias (Isaiah) in the LXX.
Anyway, this is a very interesting subject.
Philip
In the Textus Receptus (Stephanus, not Scrivener), ἐν τῷ Ὡσηὲ, the sound of the Greek is Hoh-say-eh (using the characters of the English alphabet).
The translator simply transliterated the Greek, giving O (without the rough breathing mark, untranliteratable), s, e (for eta), e (for epsilon), getting "Osee" from which the H-anglicized understood aspiration is left out.
Has nothing to do with the Septuagint Greek translated into English, from which (transliterated) one would also get "Osee" from what is in the Septuagint: ωσηε.
"Osee" is not in the Septuagint. It is in a translation of the Septuagint.