[SkyPilot]

The cardinal adds that he had "never known a document in the Catholic Church where there wasn't some criticism by some people. It doesn't surprise me in the least that there would be differences of opinion --

Documents? Why don't they simply use this:

God's Word never fails.

[BlessedBeGod]

That’s exactly what we’re talking about.

[Campion]

Yes, and it's also crystal clear, unambiguous, perfectly translated in every word, and admitting of only one possible interpretation in all cases, which is why evangelicals always all agree on exactly what it means at all times, right?

Does the Bible teach that one ought to baptize infants, as the Lutherans and Presbyterians believe, or not, as the Baptists, Mennonites, and Church of Christ teach?

[Jim Noble]

God's Word never fails

Correctamundo. But the argument right now is over the MEANING of God's Word, specifically what Jesus meant when he spoke about divorce in Matthew 19:9 and Mark 10:2.

When He says that a man who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, did He mean it in the same way He did when He spoke about having lustful thoughts at the sight of a sexy woman being the same as committing adultery with her, or did He mean that the second marriage was a state of continuous adultery?

I've been very close to Bible Christians and Bible churches for many years. I don't know of one that takes the accusation of continuous adultery in a second marriage literally. The Eastern Orthodox churches permit a second marriage after a penitential procedure, but they do not call the remarried man an adulterer.

However, this is the tradition of the Roman Church, and you must admit that, in this case at least, there is ample scriptural support for their position.