Posted on 01/23/2005 3:35:39 PM PST by blam
GGG Ping.
Well, this explains a lot...
FMCDH(BITS)
IIRC The Persians are Caucasians who have somehow been overtaken by the Jihadists. It would not be a surprise at all if the Vikings had been there though.
surely..........were they there before or after they lost their playoff game.............lol
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The Indo-European component of the core Persian population is very, very small.
The question now is when were these people conquered by a small group of Indo-Europeans who then imposed their language on the hapless captive population.
Arabs and Persians are considered "Caucasion".
Cool :-)
There are extant Arabic documents describing embasies to trade with them from Damascus.
SO9
I'm not sure what the connection with the Adriatic Sea is. There is a theory that the name of the Croats (Hrvati) is connected to an ancient Iranian tribe with a similar name. The Iranians in question may have conquered a Slavic tribe (the modern Croats speak a Slavic language) and later lost their own language...something similar happened to the Bulgars (the modern Bulgarians speak a Slavic language but the members of the original Bulgar ruling class were not Slavs).
Haitian Creole is a Romance language, but the average Haitian probably doesn't have much Roman DNA.
The longboat is a terrifying sight.
Yes, there are. Long ago, I read a historical novel that was based on those scraps, but I have never been able to find any hard info on them at all.
That was probably 'Eaters of the Dead' by Michael Crighton.
It was made into a fairly good movie starting Antonio Banderas a few years ago.
I would give you some citations on the historical events, but it's too cold to root around in book boxes in the attic.
So9
'Arabs and Persians are considered "Caucasion"'
Well, Arabs are considered Semitic. Their language is not in the Indo-European family.
Many Caucasions, Hungarians, Finns, Estonians and others speak Uralic-Altaic languages. The heavy hitters in that group are Turkish and Korean.
Caucasion relates to the presumed geographical "origins" of white folk. Indo-European deals with a family of languages which may or may not share Caucasion "origins".
It's a stretch to put Korean into the Uralic-Altaic family. Finnish and Turkish, for example, are agglutinative, while Korean is not.
Still, Korean owes more of it's foundation to it's Uralic-Altaic roots than to other influences. Then there's Japanese. It has some elements, but not enough to fully reclassify it.
Ah, but who could forget the master epic "Vikings and Beekeepers"
SCTV reference.
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