We have had this in New York for quite a while. Most people are honest and pay what they owe.
I keep a spreadsheet of my internet purchases as I make them over the year.
USE tax is an unconstitutional interstate tarif.
I'd be honest and pay what I owe--which is not one d@mned dime. The government may have the power to take my money, but it has no right to.
Maybe you can answer my question: If a sale takes place in State A, how is it legal/constitutional for State B to demand a tax on that sale?
I would DEFINITELY spend hours updating Excel spreadsheets of my out-of-state Internet purchases - if I were aware of the vendors being out-of-state.
Fortunately, I've never noticed where their legal domicile actually is. It's simply never come to my attention.
Now, where was that "Atlas Shrugged" quote again about the State wanting everyone to feel guilty?
Regards,
I admire your honesty but doubt that most people in New York are honest. Just look at the crooks they routinely elect.
As for the question of WayneS, there really isn't a question of constitutionality here. If I consume a meal at a McDonald's on the New York Thruway, I pay New York taxes even if I'm from Delaware. Even if it is take-out. It doesn't matter because it is a ready-to-eat product subject to the jurisdiction in which it is sold. If, on the other hand, I drive over to Delaware from Pennsylvania and buy a car with the intention of garaging and licensing it in Pennsylvania, our Commonwealth can rightfully claim a use tax under the law. I may not like it, but that's the way it works. If I want to avoid it, I can either move to Delaware, which is perfectly legal, or register and license it under the name of a friend in Delaware, which is considered illegal tax evasion.
That's why, applying the same logic, I should be able to enter a minus amount on this line for internet sales of clothing shipped in from another state on which sales tax is charged.