For God to even perform the first act of anything, Time has to pre-exist God, so that there is meaning in that act of God separating it from the prevailing configuration.I don't get why Time has to pre-exist God. I'm not sure I understand what that would even mean.
Besides that, even if it's somehow true and not reversed (God pre-existed time), how do you know one way or another with enough certainty to make such a statement as "Time has to pre-exist God"?
What is your authority for making that statement? You state it as if its an axiom, not the result of a chain of logical reasoning, so you must have an authority for that axiom. What is it? (Just curious.)
Just the fact that temporal separation must exist in order to distinguish between events caused by actions.
For example, if you created something, what distinguishes your act of creation from your prior state when you hadn’t yet created anything? If you don’t have Time separating those two phases, they lie superposed and happen(ed) simultaneously. This renders no meaning to your act of creation because in Timelessness, you thus end up having not yet created, AND created something simultaneously, which is absurd. Therefore, Time has to pre-exist so that your dynamism can have meaning.
Assume God “pre-existed” Time. “Then” God creates Time. BUT, for this change in the configuration of the present to be possible, where one entity didn’t exist and then it does, Time is needed in the interim to describe the change. However, until the end of these two events, Time wasn’t yet created. So, God created and did not yet create Time simultaneously (without Time, all happen simultaneously) - which is absurd.