However, there are specific verses that make it quite clear that just because a couple says they are divorced, or even if the state and their "church" say the are divorced, does not necessarily mean they are divorced in the eyes of God.
Any subsequent marriage on the part of either of the parties of a false divorce would constitute bigamy. One would think that Christian wedding service vendors would at least seek not to supply services to bigamists.
We worry that polygamy will be the next wall to be breached in the culture war, but maybe that wall got breached decades ago.
If none of Elizabeth Taylor's divorces was a proper one, isn't it the case that she was a polygamist? Ditto for everyone else married several times with only bogus divorces intervening between the marriages.
Were any of Taylor's photos, cakes, reception facilities, flowers, etc. provided by Christian businesses?
RE: There was one interesting point that the essayist brought up that wasn’t fully explored. It is the concept that every heterosexual marriage, even those that don’t follow all of scripture, are in some way acceptable to God. If this is the case, then Christian wedding vendors are within their rights to deny services to gays and not look too deeply into the specifics of heterosexuals who seek their services.
__________________________________
The problem I see with the author’s argument is she IGNORES the Biblical definition of MARRIAGE itself.
Granted that there are marriages frowned upon by scripture, however such marriages are RECOGNIZED as marriages... just nor ideal ones. For instance, the Apostle Paul does not tell the Christian woman married to an unbelieving man to divorce him simply because of his unbelief. He asks her to STAY with him and pray for him and through her character, influence him to believe. THUS, such marriage is still considered a MARRIAGE. Not ideal, but a marriage nonetheless.
However, Jesus, when he talked about marriage, never considers same-sex relationships to be marriage.
In response to a question about divorce, this is what Jesus said...
“Haven’t you read,” He replied, “that at the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female,’ and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.” ( Matthew 19:4-6)
With this, Jesus recognized marriage as TAUGHT by the Torah, to be between a man and a woman, not between people of two similar sexes.
So, a Christian refusing to service a “marriage” that by his belief in scripture is not considered one, is not being inconsistent with servicing a non-ideal matrimony between a believer and unbeliever. Why? Because the latter is recognized and allowed for by scripture ( albeit, not ideal ).