No but it gives them the jurisdiction to rule over all cases arising under the Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and treaties made under their authority.
Again, we can debate the logic behind the court's decision but their authority to strike down state laws they rule are unconstitutional is well established.
The court gave themselves that power in Marbury and it is as bogus as your empty answer.
Really? If not them, then who?
Well in constitutional republics that power is reserved for citizens through elected officials. It is not reserved for z5 unelected judges. I think you are confusing the USA with the Soviet Union.