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I’ve explained several tiems why it was important for Him to use the MYTH of Abraham’s bosom

The more your try the more desperate and absurd you are exposed to be.

I’ve explained several tiems why it was important for Him to use the MYTH of Abraham’s bosom

Wrong, for all the Scriptural reasons given. Real names were never used in parable and the Lord never used any non-existent place or experience as representing reality, including in metaphors. And in Lk. 16 He separated the Truth from the additions of tradition. As does Scripture do in other places, such as referring the book of Enoch, which also contains fiction.

Christ is NOT affirming a myth- No more so than Christ is telling everyone He is a literal vine when he gave the parable of a vine and branches

You are Wrong again, for once again the Lord is using a real and known physical reality, not some unknown growth, as a metaphor which is analogous to another reality.

[[for which you have zero precedent.]]

Sorry, but the parable of the rich man IS the precedent for the reasons already explained

What?! You want to use something outside Scripture for Scriptural precedent? In our next episode Bob434 will have the Lord channeling Vedic mythology as representing Biblical reality.

There is no ‘Abraham’s bosom’-

Well that was easy. The Lord taught that there was, since He was not teaching myth, but you say there was none. Of course we must believe the gospel according to Bob434.

There was no ‘holding place’ for those who were bound for heaven, nor one for hell- There is no soul sleep-

Indeed, as a conscious man in torments does not equate to soul sleep, yet the blood of bulls and goats could not take away sin, and the way into the holiest in the Heavenly place was not yet opened, and thus Christ went to Paradise the day of His death, descending first into lower places of the earth, led captivity captive and gave gifts unto men, and many of the OT saints arose and appeared unto many.

There is too much wrong with the parable to be taken as a literal event that took place- or reference to a literal event-

Rather, There is nothing wrong with the account of Christ, only with those who relegate the Son of God as teaching science fiction and scientific error.

You main premise seems to be that because Christ never used ‘non-real’ analogies before, He is prevented from ever doing so- I’d like to see a verse that explains this rule-

Let me help you. Since the Lord could not lie of deceive, and He never taught any place or experience that never existed, and since the spiritual reality that He taught of in parables and figurative language was real, then so were the physical things that He used to illustrate them, then you have a rule of both integrity and precedent.

Now if you want to argue that since it is nowhere explicitly said that the Lord could not teach of fictional places and experiences, then there are some Mormons who would like to meet you.

Your next premise seems to be that He couldn’t possibly use ‘science fiction’ to convince anyone because doing so would be ‘fraud’ Not sure how you come to that conclusion- especially in light of the FACT that He clearly used a false teaching by the Pharisees to show them how wrong their false teaching really is

Once again the Lord no more taught a false teaching due to using some true elements of tradition then the Holy Spirit also did then doing the same with Truth from other books which also contain myths (the book of Enoch has 40 feet - or 400 depending on source - giants in Genesis). And as said, the Lord validated the True aspects while correcting the errors.

And in so doing the Lord is show you how wrong your false teaching really is !