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To: DiogenesLamp
But in the context of what it meant in 1787, it means something different from what the modern interpretation appears to be.

Of course.

It meant no religious test for CHRISTIAN doctrine. The fear of that time was that there would be doctrine based discrimination between the various denominations of Christianity which were then official religions in many states.

Then why didn't they say that? Why not exclude Jews, Muslims, Druids, and anyone else who was not Christian?

As with everything else, modern lawyers deliberately misinterpret the meaning according to their own modern notions of what those words mean.

Or maybe they just aren't that imaginative?

This is what Abraham Lincoln thought on the subject.

Again Jews, Seventh-Day Adventist and similar creeds were out of luck. So is it OK to exclude them from office?

Islam should not be tolerated in the United States. It should not be tolerated anywhere in the world, for that matter. If we have to change the Constitution to bar Islam, then that is what we should do.

That's what it would take.

The Christian foundation principle of "equality" is rejected by Islamic doctrine. Slavery in America is itself a product of Islam. Islam is no more compatible with our nation than was slavery.

I'd forgotten how entertaining your stuff was.

42 posted on 12/16/2015 9:30:10 AM PST by DoodleDawg
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To: DoodleDawg
Then why didn't they say that?

Because they didn't realize people would eventually become so stupid. Again, look at Abraham Lincoln's opinion on the issue. You generally like his claims regarding what the constitution means. At least you like them when they agree with your own personal preferences.

I'd forgotten how entertaining your stuff was.

I fully remembered how much of a deliberately contrarian child you are. I generally don't bother to devote much effort to any response to you. Why cast pearls before swine?

56 posted on 12/16/2015 10:51:23 AM PST by DiogenesLamp ("of parents owing allegiance to no other sovereignty.")
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