Posted on 04/05/2002 8:55:10 AM PST by Sub-Driver
Edited on 09/03/2002 4:50:15 AM PDT by Jim Robinson. [history]
1947-49 war: Local skirmishes began in November 1947 after the United Nations adopted a resolution partitioning Palestine into Jewish and Arab states. Five Arab nations invaded immediately after Israel declared independence in May 1948. Israel repelled the invaders and captured more territory than allotted by the U.N. plan, which was never implemented. Egypt agreed to a U.N.-brokered armistice in February 1949, and similar agreements with Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Iraq followed.
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Go blame the CIA!
Where did Syria come from? Where did Jordan come from? Give me a break. How come you are not whining about how the land was taken from the rightful owners there? Most of the Arab states were partitioned by the same guys. How come the Jews did not declare war on Jordan and demand a homeland? Jews lived there for thousands of years before Jordan was partitioned, the same a Syria.
You Islamics are all hypocrits. What is the most stupid thing is you believe each other, but not a one of you would know what the truth was if it bit you on the ass.
Don't feel so bad, you overlooked something from last year Uss Cole. If it'd been a snake it'd bit ya.
Well now they demand half the land, and are killing everbody to get it.
Considering that scalping was introduced by the British and French, you can't really criticize the Sioux or any of the other tribes.
If your going to talk about the bad things Indians did, you need to talk about the bad things the US Government did. Otherwise, you'd be no better than the Germans and Japanese that are trying to write WWII out of the history books.
If you put it into context of the fact, that during the first part of the last century, Britain and France drew, and I do mean drew, the national borders of pretty much every country around Israel, then you'll understand why that area is so screwed up. It's like there are half a dozen mini-Yugoslavia's around there. Iraq with the Kurds alone is a good example. A great one is Afghanistan, which was thrown together, even though there are several major tribes which do not get along with one another.
That's part of the problem in the mid-east, unlike many other places, where countries had their borders almost set in stone due to geographical features (mountains, rivers, etc), most of the mid-east came from some Brits and French sitting around looking at the area with a blank piece of paper and a bunch of pencils.
Oh, really? Perhaps you've not read the historical records observed by the Cortes party (1525-ish). They were appalled at the barbaric traditions of the Native Americans and Mexicans, including scalping.
Even those who blame the Europeans will agree that Indians scalped each other for centuries before white man arrived...evidence of scalping on this continent dating back to nearly 2,500 B.C., more than a thousand years before scalping evidence in Europe or Asia. (Archaelogical evidence indicates there may have been scalping in China around 1,000 B.C.)
Written accounts (484-425BC) indicate scalping was practiced by the Scythians (Iranians) who inhabited the Danube-DonVolga regions. Antiochus (second book of the Maccabees) gives descriptions of Persian troops scalping Jews. Texts from the Visigoths contain some references to scalping in Europe.
I'm not saying it's a good thing, but it certainly wasn't "introduced" to the peaceful utopian Indians by mean old Europeans. The original post waxed poetic about the "harmonious" existence of Indians prior to white man showing up and ruining paradise for them. I was merely pointing out that the poster's argument was false, as is yours.
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