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Ossuary was genuine, inscription was faked
Jewsweek ^ | November 1, 2002 | Rochelle I. Altman

Posted on 11/01/2002 7:58:40 PM PST by Vince Ferrer

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To: SMEDLEYBUTLER
Please provide those passages of Scripture that state the Blessed Virgin Mary gave birth to other children or that the "brothers" and "sisters" of Jesus are called the "sons and daughters" of Mary.

You know where it is.

If you think this is a, "Protestant," thing, go ask a protestant. I don't care what superstitions you want to hold. If it comforts you, more power to you.

Hank

21 posted on 11/02/2002 6:32:12 AM PST by Hank Kerchief
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To: SMEDLEYBUTLER
The Bible clearly states that Jesus was Mary's firstborn son. It also goes on to state regarding her husband, Joseph, "He had no sexual relations with her before she gave birth to her son." - Matt. 1:25 (From the God News Bible, Imprimatur: John Francis Whealon, Archbishop of Hartford. In other words, a "Catholic" Bible).

The NIV has it as "But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son." (Emphasis mine).

The King James Version has it as "And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son:" (Again, emphasis mine).

There are other verses that can be cited as well, but the point is that if Mary had taken some sort of vow of virginity, then by allowing Joseph to marry her she would have been contemptuous of the holy covenant of marraige. Even the Catholic church does not allow a wife to take a vow of continence at her own pleasure. The Bible is also clearly against it, declaring that the marriage bed is God's will for married couples (Genesis 1:28; 2:21-24; I Corinthians 7:3-5) and that it is honorable in all (Hebrews 13:4).

Sorry, but the myth of Mary's perpetual virginity doesn't hold up to scripture.

22 posted on 11/02/2002 7:13:37 AM PST by Pablo64
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To: Pablo64; SMEDLEYBUTLER
The NIV has it as "But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son." (Emphasis mine).

My democrat Catholic grandmother never voted Republican until the day she died.

It woluld be news to her indeed that by your logic she must have voted Republican after that point.

The King James Version has it as "And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son:" (Again, emphasis mine).

Likewise my beloved great uncle never voted Democrat till the day he died.

Of course, he lived in Chicago, so he has been voting Democrat ever since the day he died ;-)

I think even you might get my point here...

23 posted on 11/02/2002 10:11:23 AM PST by Polycarp
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To: Polycarp
I like the joke about voting democrat in Chicago ever since he died. But, you still didn't make a point based on anything biblical (which is what you had asked for in the first place). The notion of Mary being a perpetual virgin is nothing more than a myth based on traditional stories.

What possible point could there be in her remaining a virgin after Jesus had been born? To imply that somehow Jesus would be contaminated or something by Mary having normal sexual relations with her lawful husband and bearing other children after Jesus was born is irrational and the evidence of scripture would indicate that this is not the case. Such an arguement takes away from Jesus' very humility in becoming a man. It would have been sinful of her to agree to marriage if she had already made a vow of virginity since she would enter marriage knowing that she could not fulfill her duties to her husband as a wife.

I know that you probably don't really care what the Bible says on this issue since the Catholic church has seen fit to declare otherwise, so I will have to leave it at that and say that we will agree to disagree on this topic.

24 posted on 11/02/2002 2:45:41 PM PST by Pablo64
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A Blast from the Past.

To all -- please ping me to other topics which are appropriate for the GGG list. Thanks.
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25 posted on 02/19/2007 8:06:15 PM PST by SunkenCiv (I last updated my profile on Thursday, February 19, 2007. https://secure.freerepublic.com/donate/)
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