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Celtic Found to Have Ancient Roots
NY Times ^
| July 1, 2003
| NICHOLAS WADE
Posted on 07/01/2003 5:48:39 AM PDT by Pharmboy
click here to read article
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Asked what linguists thought of his method he said: "To be honest, they don't understand it, most of them. They don't even know what I'm talking about."This guy must treat his undergraduate students very well (snicker).
1
posted on
07/01/2003 5:48:40 AM PDT
by
Pharmboy
To: PatrickHenry; aculeus; blam; jennyp; thefactor
Top-o-the-mornin' ping to ya...
2
posted on
07/01/2003 5:51:26 AM PDT
by
Pharmboy
(Dems lie 'cause they have to...)
To: Pharmboy
The article raises an interesting point: most people assume that languages spread by conquest, but that doesn't seem to hold so well.
The Romans conquered the Greeks, but the Greeks still speak Greek and probably more Romans learned Greek than Greeks learned Latin.
Likewise, the Gauls maintained their language for centuries after Caesar's conquest, but lost it after they successfully conquered back territory.
The Germanic Franks conquered Romanized Gaul, but wound up speaking a language more Roman than German.
3
posted on
07/01/2003 5:58:08 AM PDT
by
wideawake
(God bless our brave soldiers and their Commander in Chief)
To: wideawake
Excellent points (as Carson used to say "I did not know that..."). I know a bit about biology, but not much on linguistics, though I find it fascinating. Any more insights or examples you can offer would always be appreciated on any of my athropology-related threads.
4
posted on
07/01/2003 6:01:53 AM PDT
by
Pharmboy
(Dems lie 'cause they have to...)
To: Pharmboy
they say that soon after the ancestral Indo-European language arrived in Europe it split into different branches leading to Celtic, Latin, Greek and English. Someone is a moron. Probably the journalist. English is a Germanic language, with heavy influence from French (a Romance language, based on Latin). It is a staggering mistake to say that English is one of 4 early offshoots from the ancestral Indo-European language.
To: wideawake
However, some languages are replaced. Celtic was largely replaced by Anglo Saxon. Aztec by Spanish. English will be replaced by Spanish in the USA.
6
posted on
07/01/2003 6:08:34 AM PDT
by
AEMILIUS PAULUS
(Further, the statement assumed)
To: ClearCase_guy
Good pick-up. I missed that completely; and, of course you are CORRECTAMUNDO!
7
posted on
07/01/2003 6:10:57 AM PDT
by
Pharmboy
(Dems lie 'cause they have to...)
To: Pharmboy
Did they find an ancient basketball? When were the Celtics in France I thought the were always in Boston? The NBA really goes back further than I thought.
8
posted on
07/01/2003 6:12:03 AM PDT
by
Conspiracy Guy
(Read Buddy's, (the labrador retriever), new book about the Clintons, "Living Hell")
To: AEMILIUS PAULUS
I know you were being a bit tongue-in-cheek to make a point, but you raise another issue: has English EVER been replaced ANYWHERE as a language?
9
posted on
07/01/2003 6:12:18 AM PDT
by
Pharmboy
(Dems lie 'cause they have to...)
To: wideawake
the reason the greeks still speak greek is that they never sacked rome. The Celts and the Carthaginians did and the former were decimated and the latters were "delenda est".
To: Flurry
LOL!! They must have had an ancient Euro-league with the LXXVIs!
11
posted on
07/01/2003 6:14:15 AM PDT
by
Pharmboy
(Dems lie 'cause they have to...)
To: ClearCase_guy
"...It is a staggering mistake to say that English is one of 4 early offshoots from the ancestral Indo-European language...."
It is a staggering mistake to say that the author suggested that. Rather, he states that the early Indo-European language split eventually LED to English, not that English developed at the time of the split.
To: Pharmboy
I guess we can no longer claim round ball to be American. Oh well so much for history.
13
posted on
07/01/2003 6:15:38 AM PDT
by
Conspiracy Guy
(Read Buddy's, (the labrador retriever), new book about the Clintons, "Living Hell")
To: Pharmboy
Does this mean we qualify for reparations, or at least affirmative action considerations?
To: Pharmboy
15
posted on
07/01/2003 6:19:18 AM PDT
by
glock rocks
(Remember -- only you can prevent fundraisers ... become a monthly donor.)
To: Pharmboy
Upon closer examination, the NY Times reporter was found to have blonde roots.
To: Pharmboy
One of the reasons English has not been replaced is that it is so adaptable. It just absorbs vocabulary from people who use it instead of trying to legistate out foreign influences like the French try to do with English.
17
posted on
07/01/2003 6:22:44 AM PDT
by
twigs
To: Prof Engineer
ping
18
posted on
07/01/2003 6:22:44 AM PDT
by
msdrby
(I do believe the cheese slid off his cracker! - The Green Mile)
To: twigs
legistate = legislate
19
posted on
07/01/2003 6:23:36 AM PDT
by
twigs
To: Pharmboy
>>>I know you were being a bit tongue-in-cheek to make a point, but you raise another issue: has English EVER been replaced ANYWHERE as a language? <<<
Sure lots of places, according to other threads here on FR.
Miami
New York City
South Texas
Southern California
Westmount (Anglo Suburb of Montreal)
I'm sure I've missed a few.
Adios. Vaya Con Dios. Hasta la vista.
20
posted on
07/01/2003 6:25:16 AM PDT
by
MalcolmS
(Do Not Remove This Tagline Under Penalty Of Law!)
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