Here is, I believe, the essence of “free will”.
Before he is called (elected, saved, transformed, whatever you want to call it)man has the “Free Will” to sin or not sin. Those are his choices.
After his call, man has three choices: sin, not sin, or please God.
No one who is “Dead in Sin” can please God. Only those who are free from sin’s ravages are “Free” to please God.
Not according to Romans, man's free will alone works within the range of sin: 3:10 "THERE IS NONE RIGHTEOUS, NOT EVEN ONE; THERE IS NONE WHO UNDERSTANDS, THERE IS NONE WHO SEEKS FOR GOD ; ALL HAVE TURNED ASIDE, TOGETHER THEY HAVE BECOME USELESS; THERE IS NONE WHO DOES GOOD, THERE IS NOT EVEN ONE."
Why do we not understand the part where it says "THERE IS NONE WHO SEEKS FOR GOD"?? Why do we not understand the word "NONE"??
The doctrine that man's free will can choose God is based on a misunderstanding of Sin and the Scriptures. Since this verse is in both the Old and New Testaments, why do we not believe it??