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To: vladimir998; Wife of D; AnalogReigns
According to the Moravian Church's webs site @ http://www.moravian.org/history/

In the mid-ninth century these countries converted to Christianity chiefly through the influence of two Greek Orthodox missionaries, Cyril and Methodius. They translated the Bible into the common language and introduced a national church ritual. In the centuries that followed, Bohemia and Moravia gradually fell under the ecclesiastical jurisdiction of Rome, but some of the Czech people protested.

The foremost of Czech reformers, John Hus (1369-1415) was a professor of philosophy and rector of the University in Prague. The Bethlehem Chapel in Prague, where Hus preached, became a rallying place for the Czech reformation. Gaining support from students and the common people, he led a protest movement against many practices of the Roman Catholic clergy and hierarchy. Hus was accused of heresy, underwent a long trial at the Council of Constance, and was burned at the stake on July 6, 1415.

While, vladimir998 is correct to say that the Western and Eastern churches were technically still part of a unified Church there were already deep divisions. One of which was that the Greek east allowed the translations of the Bible into the vernacular and allowed for local autonomy and the acceptance of local traditions. The Latin church only allowed Latin - it did relent and allowed Sts. Cyril and Methodius to continue in the Slavic vernacular but then to appease the Germans who were the rulers there at the time, the Pope told St. Methodius he could no longer celebrate liturgy in the Slavic vernacular. Methodius appealed to the Pope and to Rome's credit and was again allowed to used the Slavic vernacular. But within twenty years after his death, And without the brothers to explain their position, use of the vernacular in liturgy was again banned by the Latins.

This is laid the groundwork for the resentment that long simmered against the Latin church.

51 posted on 08/13/2009 7:25:19 AM PDT by Nikas777 (En touto nika, "In this, be victorious")
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To: Nikas777

You wrote:

“While, vladimir998 is correct to say that the Western and Eastern churches were technically still part of a unified Church there were already deep divisions.”

I can agree with that.

“One of which was that the Greek east allowed the translations of the Bible into the vernacular and allowed for local autonomy and the acceptance of local traditions.”

So did the West. 1) There NEVER was a rule against translating the Bible into the vernacular for all of the West and what local rules came out later came out in the 13th or 14th century. 2) There were plenty of local customs and liturgies that developed and florished in the West: Sarum, Mozarabic, Ambrosian, Gallic, Roman, the various Celtic Rites and several others I can’t even think of at the moment. Someone could easily make the case that the Westerners - at the time period we’re talking about - were much more diverse in liturgy than the Orthodox East ever was.

“The Latin church only allowed Latin - it did relent and allowed Sts. Cyril and Methodius to continue in the Slavic vernacular but then to appease the Germans who were the rulers there at the time, the Pope told St. Methodius he could no longer celebrate liturgy in the Slavic vernacular.”

1) Other than with Sts. C and M, who exactly WANTED a Mass in other than Latin? 2) Take the Irish Rite, for instance, it wasn’t abolished by the Irish bishops until the 12th century - more than 300 years after the time period we’re talking about.

“Methodius appealed to the Pope and to Rome’s credit and was again allowed to used the Slavic vernacular. But within twenty years after his death, And without the brothers to explain their position, use of the vernacular in liturgy was again banned by the Latins.”

So what? How does that mean that John Huss was doing what he did because of the loss of a vernacular liturgy he wouldn’t have necessarily understood anyway? 500 years is a long time.

“This is laid the groundwork for the resentment that long simmered against the Latin church.”

Complete nonsense. There was no such resentment nor can anyone apparently document said supposed resentment. Where was that “simmering” resentment for 500 years? You think someone would have written about it at least once wouldn’t you?


52 posted on 08/13/2009 9:26:20 AM PDT by vladimir998
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