While waiting for those more versed, let me take a shot at it.
Jesus was born pure and that could only have happened with Mary being pure.
You can’t extract the Virgin Birth without extracting the Life of Christ — they are the same and inextricably linked.
Jesus was born pure and that could only have happened with Mary being pure.
You can’t extract the Virgin Birth without extracting the Life of Christ — they are the same and inextricably linked.
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I agree completely. However that doesn’t answer the question as to why she MUST have remained a Virgin AFTER the birth of Christ.
Mary’s virginity was only required one time.
Jesus is God. Nothing can make Him “impure”.
That theory implies an infinite regression i.e. Mary could not be “pure” without Mary’s mother being “pure”.
I believe Mary gave birth to Jesus as a virgin because that arrangement fulfilled prophecy.
It doesn’t require Mary to be “pure” which I think you mean sinless (she was not sinless).
That’s the thing God used sinful men and women to achieve His purposes at times, but they were all a foreshodow of the Sinless Messiah.
-JS.
It doesn’t require Mary to be “pure” which I think you mean sinless (she was not sinless).
That’s the thing God used sinful men and women to achieve His purposes at times, but they were all a foreshodow of the Sinless Messiah.
-JS.
**I’m on my way to run an errand, will get back to you later**
And then I went to church and a St. Patrick Dinner! LOL!