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To: SeekAndFind
How can it be binding when neither "bride" or "groom" can be present to say their I Do's?

7 posted on 04/02/2012 9:22:11 AM PDT by BitWielder1 (Corporate Profits are better than Government Waste)
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To: BitWielder1
How can it be binding when neither "bride" or "groom" can be present to say their I Do's?

My understanding, derived from Mormon relatives, is that it is only 'binding' IF the deceased in Paradise accept.

IOW, like "baptism for the dead", it is conditional; and it is all LDS BS, since:

Matt 22:29-30

29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.

30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.
KJV

20 posted on 04/02/2012 11:44:01 AM PDT by ApplegateRanch (The difference between "bad" & "worse" is more noticeable than that between "good" & "better")
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