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According to Scripture (Where is sola scriptura itself taught in the Bible?)
Catholic Answers ^ | Tim Staples

Posted on 06/22/2013 1:01:24 PM PDT by NYer

"If a teaching isn’t explicit in the Bible, then we don’t accept it as doctrine!" That belief, commonly known as sola scriptura, was a central component of all I believed as a Protestant. This bedrock Protestant teaching claims that Scripture alone is the sole rule of faith and morals for Christians. Diving deeper into its meaning to defend my Protestant faith against Catholicism about twenty years ago, I found that there was no uniform understanding of this teaching among Protestant pastors and no book I could read to get a better understanding of it.

What role does tradition play? How explicit does something have to be in Scripture before it can be called doctrine? Does Scripture tell us what is absolutely essential for us to believe as Christians? How can we determine the canon using sola scriptura? All these questions and more pointed to the central question: Where is sola scriptura itself taught in the Bible?

Most Protestants find it in 2 Timothy 3:16-17:

All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work.

The fact is that this passage (or any other) does not even hint at Scripture being the sole rule of faith. It says that Scripture is inspired and necessary—a rule of faith—but in no way does it teach that Scripture alone is all one needs to determine the truth about faith and morals in the Church. My attempt to defend this bedrock teaching of Protestantism led me to conclude that sola scriptura is unreasonable, unbiblical, and unworkable.

Unreasonable

The Protestant appeal to the sole authority of Scripture to defend sola scriptura is a textbook example of circular reasoning, and it betrays an essential problem with the doctrine itself: It is contrary to reason. One cannot prove the inspiration of Scripture, or any text, from the text itself. The Book of Mormon, the Hindu Vedas, the Qur’an, the writings of Mary Baker Eddy, and other books all claim inspiration, but this does not make them inspired.

Closely related to this is the question of the canon. After all, if the Bible is the sole rule of faith, we first have to know which books are included in the Bible. Many books were believed to be inspired and, therefore, canonical in the early Church. How do we separate the wheat from the chaff? The Protestant must use the principle of sola scriptura to answer the question of the canon. It simply cannot be done.

I recall a conversation with a Protestant friend about this. He said, "The Holy Spirit guided the early Christians and helped them gather the canon of Scripture and declare it to be the inspired word of God, as Jesus said in John 16:13." I thought that that answer was more Catholic than Protestant. John 16:13 does tells us that the Spirit will lead the apostles, and by extension, the Church, into truth. But it has nothing to say about sola scriptura or the nature or number of books in the canon.

The Bible does not and cannot answer questions about its own inspiration or about the canon. Historically, the Church used sacred Tradition outside of Scripture as its criterion for the canon. The early Christians, many of whom disagreed on the issue, needed the Church in council to give an authoritative decree to settle the question. Those are the historical facts.

To put my friend’s argument into perspective, imagine a Catholic making a similar claim to demonstrate that Mary is the Mother of God. "We believe the Holy Spirit guides us into all truth and guided the early Christians to declare this truth." Would the Protestant respond with a hearty amen? No. He would be more likely to say, "Show me where it says in the Bible that Mary is the Mother of God!" The same question, of course, applies to Protestants concerning the canon: "Show me where the canon of Scripture is in the Bible!"

Will the Circle Be Unbroken?

The issues of the inspiration and canon of Scripture are the Achilles heel of any intellectual defense of sola scriptura. So weak are the biblical attempts at an answer that often the Protestant response just turns the argument against the Catholic. "How do you know Scripture is inspired? Your reasoning is just as circular. You say the Church is infallible because the inspired Scripture says so, then you say that Scripture is inspired and infallible because the Church says so!"

Not only is this not an answer, but it also misrepresents the Catholic position. Catholics do not claim the Church is infallible because Scripture says so. The Church is infallible because Jesus said so. The Church was established and functioning as the infallible spokesperson for the Lord decades before the New Testament was written.

It is true that we know Scripture to be inspired and canonical only because the Church has told us so. That is historical fact. Catholics reason to inspiration of Scripture through demonstrating first its historical reliability and the truth about Christ and the Church. Then we can reasonably rely upon the testimony of the Church to tell us the text is inspired. This is not circular reasoning. The New Testament is the most accurate and verifiable historical document in all of ancient history, but one cannot deduce from this that it is inspired.

The testimony of the New Testament is backed up by hundreds of works by early Christian and non-Christian writers. We have the first-century testimonies of Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, the Church Fathers—some of whom were contemporaries of the apostles—and highly reliable non-Christian writers such as Suetonius, Tacitus, Pliny the Younger, Josephus, and others, all testifying to the veracity of the Christ-event in various ways. It is on the basis of the historical evidence that we can say it is a historical fact that Jesus lived, died and was reported to be resurrected from the dead by over 500 eyewitnesses (1 Cor. 15:6). Many of these eyewitnesses went to their deaths testifying to the truth of the Resurrection of Christ (Luke 1:1-4; John 21:18-19; 24-25; Acts 1:1-11).

The historical record also tells us that Jesus Christ established a Church—not a book—to be the foundation of the Christian faith (Matt. 16:15-18; 18:15-18; cf. Eph. 2:20; 3:10, 20-21; 4:11-15; 1 Tim. 3:15; Heb. 13:7, 17). Christ said of his Church, "He who hears you hears me, and he who rejects you rejects me, and he who rejects me rejects him who sent me" (Luke 10:16).

The many books that comprise the Bible never tell us that they are inspired, nor do they answer many other essential questions about their canonicity. Who can or cannot be the human authors of the texts? Who wrote them in the first place? But Scripture does tell us—remarkably clearly—that Jesus established a kingdom on earth, the Church, with a hierarchy and the authority to speak for him (Luke 20:29-32; Matt. 10:40; 28:18-20). If we did not have Scripture, we would still have the Church. But without the Church, there would be no New Testament Scripture. It was members of this kingdom, the Church, who wrote Scripture, preserved its many texts, and eventually canonized it. Scripture alone could not do any of this.

The bottom line is that the truth of the Catholic Church is rooted in history. Jesus Christ is a historical person who gave his authority to his Church to teach, govern, and sanctify in his place. His Church gave us the New Testament with the authority of Christ. Reason rejects sola scriptura as a self-refuting principle.

Unbiblical

There are four problems with the defense of sola scriptura using 2 Timothy 3:16. First, it does not speak of the New Testament at all. The two verses preceding 2 Timothy 3:16 say:

But as for you, continue in what you have learned and have firmly believed, knowing from whom you learned it and how from childhood you have been acquainted with the sacred writings which are able to instruct you for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus.

This passage does not refer to the New Testament. In fact, none of the New Testament books had been written when Timothy was a child. Claiming this verse as authentication for a book that had not been written yet goes far beyond what the text claims.

Second, 2 Timothy 3:16 does not claim Scripture to be the sole rule of faith for Christians. As a Protestant, I was guilty of seeing more than one sola in Scripture that simply did not exist. The Bible teaches justification by faith, and we Catholics believe it, but we do not believe in justification by faith alone, as Protestants do. Among other reasons, the Bible says that we are "justified by works and not by faith alone" (Jas. 2:24). There is no sola in 2 Timothy 3:16 either. The passage never claims Scripture to be the sole rule of faith.

James 1:4 illustrates the problem:

And let steadfastness have its full effect, that you may be perfect and complete, lacking in nothing.

If we apply the same principle of exegesis to this text that the Protestant does to 2 Timothy 3:16, then we would have to say that all we need is patience (steadfastness) to be perfected. We don’t need faith, hope, charity, the Church, baptism, or anything else.

Of course, any Christian knows this would be absurd. But James’s emphasis on the central importance of patience is even stronger than Paul’s emphasis on Scripture. The key is to see that there is not a sola in either text. Sola patientia would be just as wrong as sola scriptura.

Third, the Bible teaches that oral Tradition is equal to Scripture. It is silent when it comes to sola scriptura, but it is remarkably clear in teaching that oral Tradition is just as much the word of God as Scripture is. In what most scholars believe was the first book written in the New Testament, Paul said:

And we also thank God . . . that when you received the word of God which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men but as what it really is, the word of God. (1 Thess. 2:13)

According to Paul, the spoken words of the apostles were the word of God. In fact, when Paul wrote his second letter to the Thessalonians, he urged Christians there to receive the oral and written Traditions as equally authoritative. This would be expected because both are the word of God:

So, then, brethren stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or by letter. (2 Thess. 2:15)

Finally, 2 Timothy 3:16 is specifically addressed to members of the hierarchy. It is a pastoral epistle, written to a young bishop Paul had ordained. R. J. Foster points out that the phrase "man of God" refers to ministers, not to the average layperson (A Catholic Commentary on Holy Scripture, Thomas Nelson and Sons, 1149). This title was used in the Old Testament to describe those consecrated to the service of God (Deut. 33:1; 1 Sam. 2:27; 1 Kgs. 12:22). Not only does the text not say Scripture sola, but Paul’s exhortation for Timothy to study the word of God is in the context of an exhortation to "preach the word" as a minister of Christ. To use this text to claim that sola scriptura is being taught to the average layperson is—to borrow a phrase from Paul—going far "beyond what is written" (1 Cor. 4:6).

Unworkable

The silence of Scripture on sola scriptura is deafening. But when it comes to the true authority of Scripture and Tradition and to the teaching and governing authority of the Church, the text is clear:

If your brother sins against you go and tell him his fault, between you and him alone. . . . But if he does not listen, take one or two others with you. . . . If he refuses to listen . . . tell it to the church; and if he refuses to listen even to the church, let him be to you as a Gentile and a tax collector. (Matt. 18:15-17)

According to Scripture, the Church is the final court of appeal for the people of God in matters of faith, morals, and discipline. It is telling that since the Reformation of almost 500 years ago—a Reformation claiming sola scriptura as its formal principle—there are now over 33,000 Protestant denominations. In John 10:16, Jesus prophesied there would be "one flock, one shepherd." Reliance on sola scriptura has not been effective in establishing doctrine or authority.



TOPICS: Apologetics; Catholic; Ministry/Outreach; Theology
KEYWORDS: bible; itisnt; scripture; solascriptura; tradition
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To: metmom

There is so much evidence against Peter being the foundation of the church yet the RCC stands basically on one verse, misinterpreted, and steadfastly maintains it’s arrogant opposition to God and His word.


461 posted on 06/26/2013 4:05:27 PM PDT by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ)
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To: boatbums

Sure do.


462 posted on 06/26/2013 4:09:35 PM PDT by metmom (For freedom Christ has set us free; stand firm therefore & do not submit again to a yoke of slavery)
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To: CynicalBear

Typical, too. It’s not the only doctrine of theirs that they rest on one verse.


463 posted on 06/26/2013 4:10:40 PM PDT by metmom (For freedom Christ has set us free; stand firm therefore & do not submit again to a yoke of slavery)
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To: impimp; metmom; Alex Murphy
Wrong - Catholics have no problem with Paul since they, with the Holy Spirit’s help, decided his letters were sacred scripture.

I suspect that the FRoman Catholic issue with Paul is that he contradicts most modern (post-Trent) Roman Catholic teaching.

The last totally Pauline teaching emanating from Rome I am aware of is the Council of Orange.

464 posted on 06/26/2013 6:20:24 PM PDT by Gamecock ("Ultimately, Jesus died to save us from the wrath of God." —R.C. Sproul)
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To: metmom

I remember some of those quotes as they happened...


465 posted on 06/26/2013 7:09:39 PM PDT by Iscool
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To: Iscool

Yeah. It was kind of surreal, wasn’t it.


466 posted on 06/26/2013 8:10:00 PM PDT by metmom (For freedom Christ has set us free; stand firm therefore & do not submit again to a yoke of slavery)
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To: Gamecock

How do Protestants respond to this quote from Saint Paul? He affirmed the Eucharist in many places in his letters. Yet you reject the Eucharist?

1 Corinthians 11:23-26
New International Version (NIV)
23 For I received from the Lord what I also passed on to you: The Lord Jesus, on the night he was betrayed, took bread, 24 and when he had given thanks, he broke it and said, “This is my body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of me.” 25 In the same way, after supper he took the cup, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood; do this, whenever you drink it, in remembrance of me.” 26 For whenever you eat this bread and drink this cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until he comes.


467 posted on 06/26/2013 9:03:55 PM PDT by impimp
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To: impimp; Gamecock
How do Protestants respond to this quote from Saint Paul? He affirmed the Eucharist in many places in his letters. Yet you reject the Eucharist?

Protestants don't reject the Lord's Supper Communion service and "Eucharist" means thanksgiving. Most churches regularly schedule this remembrance ceremony. What is rejected is the Roman Catholic interpretation of what Jesus and Paul actually said. We believe Jesus' body was broken and his blood was shed to make propitiation for our sins and the act of partaking of the Communion bread and wine is an outward testimony that we have ALREADY received Jesus as our savior by faith. We don't look to this "sacrament" as an avenue to receiving a portion of grace needed to BE saved since we ARE saved when we first believed on Christ and were born again as children of God. So, just like Paul said Jesus said, we do this in remembrance of Him and testify of his death for us until He comes again in glory. Why do so many Catholics reject what Paul said?

468 posted on 06/26/2013 10:32:27 PM PDT by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to Him.)
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To: boatbums

The next few verses from Corinthians also point to its sacramental nature:
27Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord.28But a man must examine himself, and in so doing he is to eat of the bread and drink of the cup.29For he who eats and drinks, eats and drinks judgment to himself if he does not judge the body rightly.30For this reason many among you are weak and sick, and a number sleep.31But if we judged ourselves rightly, we would not be judged.32But when we are judged, we are disciplined by the Lord so that we will not be condemned along with the world.

33So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.34If anyone is hungry, let him eat at home, so that you will not come together for judgment. The remaining matters I will arrange when I come.


469 posted on 06/27/2013 5:44:50 AM PDT by impimp
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To: impimp
If Jesus came to fulfill the law, which he did, why would He institute cannibalism? Cannibalism is, of course, forbidden in the OT.
470 posted on 06/27/2013 7:14:11 AM PDT by Gamecock ("Ultimately, Jesus died to save us from the wrath of God." —R.C. Sproul)
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To: Gamecock

I pray that you get to ask Him that. You weren’t the only disturbed and disgusted at what Jesus was proposing.

From John 6
Many Disciples Desert Jesus
60 On hearing it, many of his disciples said, “This is a hard teaching. Who can accept it?” 61 Aware that his disciples were grumbling about this, Jesus said to them, “Does this offend you? 62 What if you see the Son of Man ascend to where he was before! 63 The Spirit gives life; the flesh counts for nothing. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and they are life. 64 Yet there are some of you who do not believe.” For Jesus had known from the beginning which of them did not believe and who would betray him. 65 He went on to say, “This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless the Father has enabled him.” 66 From this time many of his disciples turned back and no longer followed him. 67 “You do not want to leave too, do you?” Jesus asked the Twelve. 68 Simon Peter answered him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? You have the words of eternal life. 69 We believe and know that you are the Holy One of God.” 70 Then Jesus replied, “Have I not chosen you, the Twelve? Yet one of you is a devil!” 71 (He meant Judas, the son of Simon Iscariot, who, though one of the Twelve, was later to betray him.)


471 posted on 06/27/2013 3:30:35 PM PDT by impimp
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To: NYer

“Christian positions (like the Trinitarian view) were not self-evident. In other words, while a strong argument for the Divinity of Christ could be made from Scripture. One could not pretend that it was the only possible interpretation.”

No, those positions are quite self-evident, but only to those of us who have “eyes to see, and ears to hear”. Surely, there are mysteries in Scripture that aren’t well understood even by true Christians, but those aren’t serious matters of doctrine that are important to us in our lives right now.

The reason that there was so much disputation on these matters, even in the early church, is because apostacy and heresy was already happening even while the apostles were still alive, as they attested in the NT. So, you cannot assume any conclave was composed purely of Christians led by the Holy Spirit. One must assume that there were a fair number of imposters among any group of Christians, at any time, and they are the most likely culprits for misinterpretations of Scripture, since they don’t possess the essential tools for understanding it.


472 posted on 06/27/2013 6:22:24 PM PDT by Boogieman
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To: metmom

Documentation? Who needs documentation when you have an infallible magisterium? If they say it is true now, then it must always have been true, and no further documentation is necessary.


473 posted on 06/27/2013 6:24:25 PM PDT by Boogieman
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To: Boogieman

I see you’re with the program. :)


474 posted on 06/27/2013 6:26:14 PM PDT by metmom (For freedom Christ has set us free; stand firm therefore & do not submit again to a yoke of slavery)
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To: NYer

“There were many, many gospels, documents and letters. Which ones were authoritative? None of them had yet been compiled into a book.”

The same ones that have always been authoritative: those authored by the one true God.

Really the question is not which are authoritative, it is “how do we know which are authoritative?” For Catholics, the answer boils down to “somebody said so”, and for Protestants the answer boils down to “God’s handiwork is self-evident”. It’s all a bit of a moot point, since we mostly agree on which are authoritative. So the whole question only comes up either to defend the need for a magisterium (though it’s not a convincing argument to most Protestants, because they still won’t see the need), or to defend certain doctrines that are denounced by the majority of Scripture, but which Catholics adhere to anyway (which again, won’t be convincing to most Protestants).

So, I don’t know why Catholics keep bringing it up, except that they haven’t thought of a better way to defend themselves against those arguments yet.


475 posted on 06/27/2013 6:31:38 PM PDT by Boogieman
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To: piusv

“I believe it is and you believe it is, but can you or any of us prove it?”

How silly is it to ask for proof of something that God demands we believe on faith? If God wanted to provide indisputable proof of authorship (or his miracles, or of Jesus’ life, etc), then He certainly would have provided it.

Instead, He simply asked us to believe, because the Scripture is the truth, and those who love truth will be drawn to it. The sheep will hear the Shepherd’s voice, even if they can’t see the Shepherd.


476 posted on 06/27/2013 6:37:40 PM PDT by Boogieman
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To: impimp

Jesus said he is a gate. Does he have hinges?


477 posted on 06/27/2013 6:56:36 PM PDT by Gamecock ("Ultimately, Jesus died to save us from the wrath of God." —R.C. Sproul)
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To: Gamecock

Yes but in other instances when Jesus was speaking figuratively he would clarify what he was saying. Explaining parables was one example. However Jesus did not do that in John 6. Jesus did not tell his disciples to come back and explain what he “really” meant. No, that is because he was speaking literally here.

By the way He did not say this is my body and bread mixed together. It sure sounds like Jesus wanted no part of consubstantiation - transubstantion only.


478 posted on 06/27/2013 7:19:21 PM PDT by impimp
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To: impimp; Gamecock
Yes but in other instances when Jesus was speaking figuratively he would clarify what he was saying. Explaining parables was one example. However Jesus did not do that in John 6. Jesus did not tell his disciples to come back and explain what he “really” meant. No, that is because he was speaking literally here.

Sure He did. He said: John 6:63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh is no help at all. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.

479 posted on 06/27/2013 8:30:46 PM PDT by metmom (For freedom Christ has set us free; stand firm therefore & do not submit again to a yoke of slavery)
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To: metmom

If the verse you mention means he was speaking figuratively then verse 66 wouldn’t have happened.


480 posted on 06/27/2013 8:34:46 PM PDT by impimp
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