1 and 2 Cor. were both written before Israel was set aside. As were 1 Thess. 2 Thess. Gal. 1 Cor. 2 Cor. and Romans.
1. You can say Israel was set aside as a nation very early, since they rejected their Christ and God is outreaching to the Gentiles in Acts 10, while still calling Jews to repentance.
Later, "Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles." (Acts 13:46)
Yet later still: "when they opposed themselves, and blasphemed, he [Paul] shook his raiment, and said unto them, Your blood be upon your own heads; I am clean: from henceforth I will go unto the Gentiles." (Acts 18:6)
Yet still later, "when they [the chief of the Jews] had appointed him a day, there came many to him into his lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus, both out of the law of Moses, and out of the prophets, from morning till evening." (Acts 28:23)
And when they agreed not among themselves, they departed, after that Paul had spoken one word, ...Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it. (Acts 28:25,28)
The message in all these is that God preaching to the Gentiles manifested a judgment against Israel, who as a nation was set aside as being the chief object of outreach. The judicial judgment of overall making their hearts heavy, and blinding their eyes took place during Christs ministry, as a result of their spurning of His grace. Thus the Lord wept over Jerusalem, and John quotes Isaiah, " He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them. (John 12:40)
However, at no time did this mean God would not continue to outreach to the Jews, and in which a remnant were saved.
As long as God was dealing with Israel as a Nation, miracles, signs and wonders, and legal ceremonies were performed. "...because of the Jews"
2. The premise that miracles, signs and wonders were simply for the Jews and thus they ceased is patently false, because not only did God still outreach to Jews (if secondarily), but miracles were critical for the Gentiles:
For I will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ hath not wrought by me, to make the Gentiles obedient, by word and deed, Through mighty signs and wonders, by the power of the Spirit of God; so that from Jerusalem, and round about unto Illyricum, I have fully preached the gospel of Christ. (Romans 15:18-19)
Once Israel was set aside, these things were no longer practiced (1 TIm. 5:23; 2 Tim. 4:20; Phil. 2:25-29),
That is not at all evidenced by the texts invoked, as nowhere it is written that the gifts at issue mean they there would be no sickness among them. Instead, the very end of Acts has Paul doing miracles, The absence of any after Acts 20 until Acts 28 is due to the change in Paul's ministry, from public evangelism to prison.
And this is dated around 62 A.D., after he penned 1+2 Corinthians (55 A.D.)
Moreover, Phil. 3:8-23 does not teach legal ceremonies ceased, which would happen in 70 A.D. and Philippians is dated about 51 A.D., before Paul is arrested in Jerusalem (Acts 21:27-36) in about 50 A.D. which he took a Jewish vow (per James direction).
It was at conversion that Paul counted all things but loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them but dung, that I may win Christ, (Philippians 3:8)
The textual support you provide indicates someone has a hypothesis that they are making texts fit into.
Have a God night.