[redleghunter]

Did they have dietary rules? Did they need to be circumcised? Could they eat with Gentiles? Was there a universal change from that after the council at Jerusalem? If there was, which there was, was that a “different gospel then being preached prior to that council?

No where in Acts is any of that preached as part of salvation. No where in Acts 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and on. The Jerusalem council was to correct an error (Judaizers). Peter never preached that error.

[CynicalBear]

>>No where in Acts is any of that preached as part of salvation.<<

I didn’t say they did. I was trying to illustrate that the Jews had grown up with those things as rules and laws. That was part of who they were and they kept trying to include them in the new teaching. The Gentiles that had not converted to Judaism had not.

[smvoice]

Peter never preached that error?

And he said unto them, Ye KNOW how that it IS an unlawful thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of ANOTHER NATION; but God hath shewed me that I should not call any man common or unclean." (Acts 10:28)).

So when did God show Peter this? The great commission that was given to him? The day of Pentecost? No. In the vision that He gave Peter for Cornelius. Which BTW, Paul had just been saved in Acts 9. So God showed Peter this AFTER He saved Paul. And it was NOT an error, it was God's dealing with Israel and offering the kingdom to Israel if they would proclaim Christ as Messiah. The good news of the kingdom.