And, I'm sorry, but did the Church outright move against the practice? When was there an encyclical against the practice and how were the priests who did it punished? I am genuinely asking, because I really know nothing about the way Rome pronounced them wrong, and immediately wiped them out.
“And, I’m sorry, but did the Church outright move against the practice?”
How often does the very slow moving Church move against anything? And the answer is yes - at the Council of Trent.
“When was there an encyclical against the practice and how were the priests who did it punished?”
1) Encyclicals were rarely ever used for disciplinary issues. I can’t think of any, in fact, at the moment.
2) Those who illegally sold indulgences were not merely priests. I think your anti-Catholic prejudice is manifesting itself in a silly anti-clerical form. Also, I do not know what ecclesiastical censures were used against those who sold indulgences. If you read John Tedeschi’s The Prosecution of Heresy, you’ll see he mentions at least one inquisition case against someone for selling indulgences but I no longer recall if he mentions the punishment involved.
“I am genuinely asking, because I really know nothing about the way Rome pronounced them wrong, and immediately wiped them out.”
If you believe “Rome” could ever “immediately wipe...out” anyone, then you have an even deeper prejudice than it first seemed.