I suppose when you stop looking at the Greek when you think it agrees with your Philip theology you stop looking. But does this γῆς look like this γῆν?
This γῆς has been used 136 times just as I said. This γῆν has been used 78 times and this γῆ has been used 38 times. You lumped them all together (with an LOL mind you) claiming they were all the same. Seriously, do they look the same to you?
You used Matt 2:21 in which this γῆν word is used. Then you used Matt 4:15 in which this γῆ word is used. You seem to be claiming they are all the same word with the same meaning. Do they really look the same to you? Seriously?
Include your cute LOL’s if you wish but your hermeneutics fall apart and your haughty inclusion of half baked Greek makes mockery of your implied superiority.
So, we have a Greek Scholar on board Free Republic? Where were you when I asked for a Greek Scholar a few days ago: when I needed someone to verify my interpretation of 1 Thess 4:17?
Regarding your Greek, Young's Analytical Concordance uses the same Greek (γῆ) for both verses: Matt 2:21 and 4:15. So does Strong's. Which mss are you translating from? Why the variation from Strong's?
Since we have your attention, what is the difference in the translation for "land of Israel" (Matt 2:21) and "land of Zabulon" (Matt 4:15.) Both of the popular lexicons say they are the same. Were they using a different mss than you are translating from?
Philip