[editor-surveyor]

>> “Where does Scripture say Scripture is authortative?” <<

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Besides in Exodus where the scripture was first given at Mt. Sinai, This passage stands out:

2Timothy 3:

16] All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
[17] That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

There you have it! Only scripture is assigned those tasks.

[Alamo-Girl]

Where does Scripture say Scripture is authortative?

I read it here:

Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish [ought] from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you. – Deuteronomy 4:2

[JPX2011]

All Only scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

There. And now we have the protestant understanding.

[FatherofFive]

There you have it! Only scripture is assigned those tasks.

Being equiped for good works by reading the old Testament is not a definition of Authorative.

You thought wrong. Here’s the Scripture you left out:

"But as for you, continue in what you have learned and have become convinced of, because you know those from whom you learned it, and how from infancy you have known the holy Scriptures, which are able to make you wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus. "16 2 Tim 3:14-15

Now lets look at context and reality:

1. This was written to Timothy
2. Timothy was born in 17 AD
Therefore, the Scripture Paul is referring to is The Old Testament. Paul was telling Timothy that Christ fulfilled the promises of the Old Testament, and Timothy could be assured of his faith in Christ.

The apostles never assumed that the one Church established by Christ would later be replaced by a book. Christ never ordered the Apostles to write anything.