‘Do whatever he tells you
John 2
3 And when they wanted wine, the mother of Jesus saith unto him, They have no wine.
4 Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee? mine hour is not yet come.
He was grieved by his mother.
In other words as far as Mary was concerned Jesus was no more than her personal magician which she was blessed by God with, she did not understand who Jesus really was.
Why do you suppose this passage is in the Gospel in the first place? (see Jn 20:31) Why do you suppose it goes on to say, "and his disciples began to believe in him" (Jn 2:11) as a result of this miracle?
The Greek text does not at all bear the interpretation that Jesus was "grieved" by his mother. The Greek says "Woman, what is this to me and to you?" It's a Semitic expression that basically means, "Why are you involving me in this?" It's not a rebuke.